Nursing Elites

1. The nurse plans to closely monitor for which clinical manifestation after administering furosemide (Lasix)?

• A. Decrease pulse
• B. Decrease temperature
• C. Decrease BP
• D. Decrease respiratory rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-ceiling diuretics, such as furosemide, are the most effective diuretic agents. They produce more loss of fluid and electrolytes than any others. A sudden loss of fluid can result in decreased BP. When BP drops, the pulse will probably increase rather than decrease.

2. Parents are speaking with the urologist about their son's undescended testicle. Which statement by the child's father causes the nurse to determine he understands the information presented?

• A. An undescended testicle can reduce fertility.
• B. The testicle usually descends spontaneously during the first month of life.
• C. Surgical correction reduces the risk for testicular tumors.
• D. The optimal time to surgically correct the condition is at diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because an undescended testicle can reduce fertility. Even after surgical correction (orchiopexy), fertility rates may be reduced, especially when one testis remains undescended. The statement in choice B is incorrect as the testicle should have descended into the scrotum by the time the infant is 4-6 months old. While choice C is true that surgical correction can reduce the risk of testicular tumors, the question focuses on the father's understanding of the information presented, which is better reflected in choice A. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal time for surgical correction of an undescended testicle is typically around 6-18 months of age, not necessarily at the time of diagnosis.

3. Which statement is true concerning early intervention services for children 0-2 years?

• A. Only healthcare professionals can determine if the child is eligible for services
• B. Specific diagnoses are not required to qualify for services
• C. Families must not pay for services
• D. Services are provided to a diverse group of children and families

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Early intervention services aim to support a diverse group of children and families without the need for a specific diagnosis. These services are inclusive and provided to all eligible children and families, regardless of their background or particular condition.

4. A 9-month-old infant who is not sitting independently has been diagnosed with ataxic cerebral palsy (CP). Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see in the baby?

• A. Hypotonia and muscle instability
• B. Hypertonia and persistence of primitive reflexes
• C. Tremors and exaggerated posturing
• D. Hemiplegia and hypertonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In ataxic cerebral palsy, the characteristic features include hypotonia (low muscle tone) and muscle instability. These manifestations contribute to the infant's difficulty in achieving independent sitting. Hypertonia (increased muscle tone) and persistence of primitive reflexes, as mentioned in option B, are more commonly associated with other types of cerebral palsy like spastic CP. Tremors and exaggerated posturing (option C) are not typical features of ataxic CP. Hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body) and hypertonia (increased muscle tone) mentioned in option D are more commonly seen in other types of cerebral palsy, such as spastic CP.

5. Which food should be avoided by a child with acute glomerulonephritis to prevent hyperkalemia, as recommended by the nurse?

• A. Dairy products
• B. Whole-grain cereals
• C. Organ meats
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bananas are rich in potassium, which can contribute to hyperkalemia in individuals with acute glomerulonephritis. It is essential to limit potassium intake to prevent further complications associated with high potassium levels in the blood.

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