Nursing Elites

1. The nurse plans to closely monitor for which clinical manifestation after administering furosemide (Lasix)?

• A. Decrease pulse
• B. Decrease temperature
• C. Decrease BP
• D. Decrease respiratory rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-ceiling diuretics, such as furosemide, are the most effective diuretic agents. They produce more loss of fluid and electrolytes than any others. A sudden loss of fluid can result in decreased BP. When BP drops, the pulse will probably increase rather than decrease.

2. Which statement best reflects the role of the therapeutic relationship in fostering positive behaviors in children?

• A. It may be used as an intervention strategy to help a child with positive behaviors
• B. The relationship with parents or teachers is more important
• C. It is not essential for the child's behaviors
• D. Children will not pay attention to the therapist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A strong therapeutic relationship can significantly influence the development of positive behaviors in children. When a child feels connected, understood, and supported by a therapist, it can lead to better outcomes in promoting positive behaviors and emotional well-being.

3. The patient taking spironolactone (Aldactone) makes a statement indicating effective teaching. Which statement shows understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use salt substitutes to lower my sodium intake
• B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
• C. I will call my doctor if I begin having menstrual irregularities
• D. I will take this medication at bedtime each evening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause endocrine effects like menstrual irregularities. Therefore, the patient recognizing the need to report such changes indicates effective teaching. Choices A and B are incorrect as salt substitutes and high-potassium foods should be avoided with spironolactone. Choice D is also incorrect because diuretics, including spironolactone, are ideally taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to nocturia.

4. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

5. When discussing the correction of hypospadias in a newborn, what does the nurse explain about this condition?

• A. No intervention is required as the defect will correct itself over time.
• B. Surgical repair of hypospadias is typically performed before 18 months of age.
• C. Corrective surgery is commonly postponed until preschool age.
• D. Repairing the defect does not increase the risk of testicular cancer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis. Surgical repair is the primary treatment for hypospadias and is usually recommended to be done before 18 months of age. This timing is preferred for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes. Waiting until preschool age for corrective surgery may increase the complexity of the procedure and potential complications. Correcting hypospadias does not impact the risk of testicular cancer.

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