Nursing Elites

1. The nurse plans to closely monitor for which clinical manifestation after administering furosemide (Lasix)?

• A. Decrease pulse
• B. Decrease temperature
• C. Decrease BP
• D. Decrease respiratory rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-ceiling diuretics, such as furosemide, are the most effective diuretic agents. They produce more loss of fluid and electrolytes than any others. A sudden loss of fluid can result in decreased BP. When BP drops, the pulse will probably increase rather than decrease.

2. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating an infant with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should be the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?

• A. Nasal flaring
• B. WBC count of 11,300
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Abdominal distension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing an infant with pneumonia, the priority finding to report to the provider is nasal flaring. Nasal flaring indicates acute respiratory distress, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing respiratory distress take precedence over other symptoms or laboratory results in this situation.

3. The nurse is unsuccessful in inserting a nasogastric tube for a newborn client. The nurse suspects the newborn has esophageal atresia/tracheoesophageal (EA/TE) fistula. Which nursing action is appropriate while waiting for the healthcare provider to further assess the neonate?

• A. Position the newborn in a semi-Fowler position.
• B. Allow the newborn to stay in the nursery for observation.
• C. Offer the newborn pacifier for comfort.
• D. Wrap the newborn in blankets and place in an incubator.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Positioning the newborn in a semi-Fowler position is appropriate as it helps prevent aspiration in suspected EA/TE fistula. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Placing the newborn in a semi-Fowler position promotes the drainage of secretions and reduces the risk of complications while awaiting further assessment by the healthcare provider.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing an infant who has hydrocephalus and is 6 hours postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Temperature of 37.5 degrees C (99.5 degrees F)
• C. Heart rate 130/min
• D. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The provider should report the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid to the healthcare provider as it may indicate shunt malfunction or infection, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. Decreased urine output, a temperature of 37.5 degrees C, and a heart rate of 130/min are common postoperative findings and may not be directly related to shunt function. While these findings should still be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting like cerebrospinal fluid leakage.

5. A child receives a vaccine for MMR. Six hours after the injection, the child�s parent reports local soreness, erythema, lethargy, and a fever of 101�F to a nurse. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Give instructions on relieving symptoms with acetaminophen
• B. Seek emergency help, because these symptoms are signs of anaphylactic reaction
• C. Tell the parent that a live vaccine will cause a mild case of measles
• D. Obtain and fill out a Vaccine Adverse Event Report form

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Low-grade fever, malaise, and muscle aches are common reactions. Acetaminophen usually alleviates these problems. MMR is a live vaccine but it is attenuated or completely avirulent and does not cause measles in healthy children, only immunocompromised children.

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