Nursing Elites

1. While auscultating the lungs of an adolescent with asthma, what should the nurse identify the sound as?

• A. Biots respiration
• B. Chaney-Stokes respiration
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should identify the sound heard during auscultation as tachypnea, which is characterized by a rapid, regular breathing pattern. In the case of an adolescent with asthma, tachypnea can be indicative of increased work of breathing due to airway constriction and inflammation. Biots respiration (choice A) is characterized by an irregular pattern of breathing with periods of apnea. Chaney-Stokes respiration (choice B) is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate, which is not typically associated with asthma exacerbation.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

• A. Bruising
• B. Petechiae
• C. Elevated WBC count
• D. Elevated platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding to report for a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia is petechiae. Petechiae indicate a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare provider should promptly report petechiae to initiate appropriate interventions to prevent bleeding complications.

3. The caregiver is teaching a parent of a young child with a newly diagnosed seizure disorder. The child is prescribed valproic acid (Depakote) for control of seizures. Which parental statement indicates the need for further education?

• A. I will not use carbonated beverages to dilute his medication.
• B. I will give his medication with food to minimize gastrointestinal upset.
• C. I will not let him chew his tablet.
• D. I will bring him to the physician's office for regular blood work to check his blood levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Valproic acid should be administered with food to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset. Giving it on an empty stomach may increase the likelihood of adverse effects. The other statements are correct: A - Carbonated beverages should not be used to dilute the medication, C - The tablet should not be chewed, and D - Regular blood work is necessary to monitor valproic acid levels and potential side effects.

4. Which principle does not follow neuromaturational theory?

• A. The sequence and rate of motor development are consistent among infants
• B. Movement emerges from an interaction and cooperation of many systems
• C. Movement progresses from primitive reflexes to voluntary control
• D. Low-level skills are prerequisites for certain high-level skills

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neuromaturational theory emphasizes that motor development progresses in a predictable sequence and rate, starting from primitive reflexes to voluntary control. It also states that low-level skills are foundational for higher-level skills. However, the theory does not support the idea that movement solely emerges from an interaction and cooperation of many systems, as it focuses more on the hierarchical development of motor skills.

5. Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?

• A. Morphine
• B. Pentazocine
• C. Hydrocodone
• D. Nalmefene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Morphine, as a strong opioid agonist, has the highest likelihood of causing serious respiratory depression due to its potent effects on the central nervous system. While Pentazocine and Hydrocodone can also cause respiratory depression, they are less likely to do so compared to morphine. Nalmefene, an opioid antagonist, is used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids rather than causing it.

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