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ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. While auscultating the lungs of an adolescent with asthma, what should the nurse identify the sound as?
- A. Biots respiration
- B. Chaney-Stokes respiration
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should identify the sound heard during auscultation as tachypnea, which is characterized by a rapid, regular breathing pattern. In the case of an adolescent with asthma, tachypnea can be indicative of increased work of breathing due to airway constriction and inflammation. Biots respiration (choice A) is characterized by an irregular pattern of breathing with periods of apnea. Chaney-Stokes respiration (choice B) is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate, which is not typically associated with asthma exacerbation.
2. Which statement best describes the use of activity or task analysis?
- A. A foundational tool in occupational therapy for over a century
- B. A technique used to evaluate motor deficits in pediatrics
- C. Recently applied in some areas of pediatric occupational therapy
- D. A tool used exclusively by occupational therapy practitioners
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'A foundational tool in occupational therapy for over a century.' Activity or task analysis has been a fundamental method in occupational therapy for a long time. It involves breaking down activities or tasks into smaller components to understand the skills required and identify areas of difficulty. This process helps occupational therapists develop effective intervention strategies to improve a client's ability to perform daily activities independently. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because activity or task analysis is not limited to evaluating motor deficits in pediatrics, recently applied only in some areas of pediatric occupational therapy, or exclusively used by occupational therapy practitioners. It is a widely used and established method in the field of occupational therapy.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer ibuprofen 5 mg per kg every 6 hours PRN for temperatures above 38.0 degrees Celsius or 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit to an infant who weighs 17.6 lb. The infant has a temperature of 38.4 degrees Celsius or 101.2 degrees Fahrenheit. Available is ibuprofen liquid 100 mg/5 ml. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer to the infant?
- A. 12 ml
- B. 6 ml
- C. 2 ml
- D. 1 ml
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the infant's weight to kilograms: 17.6 lb = 8 kg. The prescribed dose is 5 mg/kg, so for an 8 kg infant, the total dose required is 40 mg. Since the available ibuprofen liquid is 100 mg/5 ml, to find out how many milliliters to administer, divide the total dose (40 mg) by the concentration of the liquid (100 mg/5 ml), which equals 2 ml. Therefore, the healthcare provider should administer 2 ml of ibuprofen to the infant.
4. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate when assessing a child admitted to the hospital unit with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS)?
- A. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema
- B. Hematuria, bacteriuria, and weight gain
- C. Decreased urine specific gravity and increased urinary output
- D. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, and fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. Proteinuria results from the loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia. The low oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. These clinical manifestations are classic signs of MCNS and help differentiate it from other renal conditions.
5. A newborn's parents are being taught about ways to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Place the infant in a prone position to sleep.
- B. Allow the infant to sleep on a large pillow.
- C. Use a soft mattress in the infant's crib.
- D. Give the infant a pacifier at bedtime.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent SIDS is to give the infant a pacifier at bedtime. The use of a pacifier while the infant is sleeping is associated with a decreased risk of SIDS. Placing the infant on their back to sleep is recommended to prevent SIDS, not in a prone position (Choice A). Allowing the infant to sleep on a large pillow (Choice B) is dangerous and increases the risk of SIDS. Using a soft mattress in the infant's crib (Choice C) is also a risk factor for SIDS, so it should be avoided. Additionally, soft bedding or pillows should be avoided to reduce the risk of SIDS.
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