ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. While auscultating the lungs of an adolescent with asthma, what should the nurse identify the sound as?
- A. Biots respiration
- B. Chaney-Stokes respiration
- C. Tachypnea
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should identify the sound heard during auscultation as tachypnea, which is characterized by a rapid, regular breathing pattern. In the case of an adolescent with asthma, tachypnea can be indicative of increased work of breathing due to airway constriction and inflammation. Biots respiration (choice A) is characterized by an irregular pattern of breathing with periods of apnea. Chaney-Stokes respiration (choice B) is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate, which is not typically associated with asthma exacerbation.
2. During a well-child visit, a nurse is assessing a three-year-old toddler. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 90/50
- B. Respiratory rate 45/min
- C. Weight 14.5 kg or 32 lb
- D. Heart rate 110/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 45/min is above the expected reference range for a 3-year-old toddler and may indicate respiratory dysfunction or acute respiratory distress. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
3. Which is NOT one of the functions of challenging behaviors?
- A. Avoiding a situation
- B. Escaping from an undesired object or event
- C. to make others happy
- D. Sensory functions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Challenging behaviors often serve functions related to avoiding, escaping, obtaining, or sensory needs. The question is asking for the function that does not typically apply to challenging behaviors. Choices A, B, C, and D align with the common functions associated with challenging behaviors. Therefore, 'E' is the correct answer as it does not represent a typical function of challenging behaviors.
4. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient prescribed verapamil SR 120mg PO daily for HTN. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication?
- A. �I will take the medication with grapefruit juice each morning.�
- B. �I should expect occasional loose stools from this medication�
- C. �I�ll need to reduce the amount of fiber in my diet�
- D. �I must swallow the pill whole.�
Correct answer: D
Rationale: �SR� indicates that the drug is sustained release; therefore, the patient must swallow the pill intact, without chewing or crushing, which would result in a bolus effect. Grapefruit juice should be avoided, because it can inhibit intestinal and hepatic metabolism of the drug, thereby raising the drug level. Constipation, not loose stools, is a common side effect. Increasing fluids and dietary fiber can help prevent this adverse effect.
5. A newborn's parents are being taught about ways to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Place the infant in a prone position to sleep.
- B. Allow the infant to sleep on a large pillow.
- C. Use a soft mattress in the infant's crib.
- D. Give the infant a pacifier at bedtime.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent SIDS is to give the infant a pacifier at bedtime. The use of a pacifier while the infant is sleeping is associated with a decreased risk of SIDS. Placing the infant on their back to sleep is recommended to prevent SIDS, not in a prone position (Choice A). Allowing the infant to sleep on a large pillow (Choice B) is dangerous and increases the risk of SIDS. Using a soft mattress in the infant's crib (Choice C) is also a risk factor for SIDS, so it should be avoided. Additionally, soft bedding or pillows should be avoided to reduce the risk of SIDS.
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