Nursing Elites

1. While auscultating the lungs of an adolescent with asthma, what should the nurse identify the sound as?

• A. Biots respiration
• B. Chaney-Stokes respiration
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should identify the sound heard during auscultation as tachypnea, which is characterized by a rapid, regular breathing pattern. In the case of an adolescent with asthma, tachypnea can be indicative of increased work of breathing due to airway constriction and inflammation. Biots respiration (choice A) is characterized by an irregular pattern of breathing with periods of apnea. Chaney-Stokes respiration (choice B) is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate, which is not typically associated with asthma exacerbation.

2. A teacher states to the school nurse, 'I have a student who will often just stare at me for 15 seconds after asking a question; then the student blinks and asks me to repeat the question. Should I be concerned?' Which should the nurse include in the response to the teacher?

• A. The child has a crush on the teacher.
• B. The child has increased intracranial pressure.
• C. The child may have had a head injury.
• D. The child is experiencing absence seizures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Staring spells that end abruptly and are followed by normal activity are indicative of absence seizures. In absence seizures, a child may exhibit staring spells, brief loss of awareness, and lack of responsiveness, which can last for a few seconds. Choice A is incorrect because the behavior described is not associated with having a crush. Choice B is incorrect as increased intracranial pressure usually presents with other symptoms. Choice C is less likely as a head injury would typically manifest with additional signs beyond just staring and blinking.

3. Which strategy is most effective in preventing existing challenging behaviors?

• A. Ignoring the behaviors
• B. Individualized interventions
• C. Providing flexible rules
• D. Punishment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individualized interventions are tailored to address the specific needs and triggers of the individual's challenging behaviors. By customizing the approach to each person, it increases the likelihood of effectively preventing and managing the existing challenging behaviors.

4. Which statement is true concerning early intervention services for children 0-2 years?

• A. Only healthcare professionals can determine if the child is eligible for services
• B. Specific diagnoses are not required to qualify for services
• C. Families must not pay for services
• D. Services are provided to a diverse group of children and families

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Early intervention services aim to support a diverse group of children and families without the need for a specific diagnosis. These services are inclusive and provided to all eligible children and families, regardless of their background or particular condition.

5. The nurse is providing care for a pediatric client in the emergency department (ED) with a diagnosis of decreased level of consciousness (LOC) secondary to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which healthcare provider order should the nurse question?

• A. Passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion
• B. Oxygen at 2 L nasal cannula to maintain saturation above 95%
• C. Hourly vital signs and neurologic checks
• D. Elevate head of bed 30 degrees

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a pediatric client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and decreased level of consciousness (LOC), passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion should be questioned as they can potentially increase intracranial pressure. This action may not be safe for the client's condition. The other options are appropriate interventions for managing a pediatric client with increased ICP and decreased LOC.

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