Nursing Elites

1. While auscultating the lungs of an adolescent with asthma, what should the nurse identify the sound as?

• A. Biots respiration
• B. Chaney-Stokes respiration
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should identify the sound heard during auscultation as tachypnea, which is characterized by a rapid, regular breathing pattern. In the case of an adolescent with asthma, tachypnea can be indicative of increased work of breathing due to airway constriction and inflammation. Biots respiration (choice A) is characterized by an irregular pattern of breathing with periods of apnea. Chaney-Stokes respiration (choice B) is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate, which is not typically associated with asthma exacerbation.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 15-month-old child. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of this vaccine?

• A. Family history of egg allergy
• B. Currently taking antibiotics
• C. History of asthma
• D. Presence of rhinorrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking antibiotics is a contraindication to receiving the MMR vaccine because antibiotics can potentially interfere with the effectiveness of the vaccine. It is essential to avoid administering the MMR vaccine while the child is on antibiotics to ensure the vaccine provides the intended protection.

3. Which of the following is not considered a part of body language?

• A. Mannerisms
• B. Speech
• C. Posture
• D. Position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Body language encompasses non-verbal communication cues such as mannerisms, posture, and position. Speech, although a form of communication, is not typically classified as part of body language. Body language mainly refers to gestures, facial expressions, and body movements, which convey messages non-verbally.

4. A newborn diagnosed with an omphalocele defect is admitted to the intensive care nursery. Which nursing action is appropriate based on the current data?

• A. Placing the newborn on a radiant warmer
• B. Placing the newborn in an open crib
• C. Preparing the newborn for phototherapy
• D. Preparing the newborn for bottle-feeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the newborn on a radiant warmer is appropriate as it helps maintain the body temperature and prevent hypothermia in a newborn with an omphalocele defect. This is crucial for the infant's well-being and supports their physiological stability.

5. When planning care for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, which is the priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
• B. Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern
• C. Acute Pain
• D. Risk for Aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula is 'Risk for Aspiration' because of the potential respiratory complications associated with these conditions. The newborn is at a higher risk of aspirating oral or gastric contents due to the abnormal connections between the esophagus and trachea, posing a serious threat to the airway and lungs. Addressing this risk is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and maintain the airway's patency, making it the priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario. 'Ineffective Tissue Perfusion' is not the priority as respiratory compromise takes precedence over perfusion concerns. 'Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern' may be relevant but addressing the risk of aspiration is more critical. 'Acute Pain' is not the priority compared to the life-threatening risk of aspiration.

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