ATI RN
Endocrinology Exam
1. The nurse is planning care for a client with epilepsy. Which precautions does the nurse implement to ensure the safety of the client while in the hospital? (Select one that doesn't apply.)
- A. Have suction equipment at the bedside
- B. Keep bed rails up at all times
- C. Ensure that the client has IV access
- D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a client with epilepsy, it is essential to avoid restraining them with strict bed rest as it can lead to complications like muscle atrophy, thrombosis, and pressure ulcers. Having suction equipment at the bedside is important in case of seizures to prevent aspiration. Keeping bed rails up can prevent falls during a seizure. Ensuring that the client has IV access is crucial for administering medications such as antiepileptic drugs or emergency medications if needed. Therefore, maintaining the client on strict bed rest is not a recommended precaution for a client with epilepsy.
2. A client is receiving an IV infusion of an antibiotic. The client calls the nurse feeling uneasy due to congestion. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Elevate the head of the client's bed to 45 degrees
- B. Have another nurse call the Rapid Response Team
- C. Prepare to administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- D. Slow the rate of the IV infusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this situation, the client's symptoms of congestion and feeling uneasy may indicate an anaphylactic reaction, which can be life-threatening. The most appropriate action is to call the Rapid Response Team to provide immediate assistance and interventions. Elevating the head of the bed, administering diphenhydramine, or slowing the IV infusion rate are not the priority actions in the case of a potential severe allergic reaction. These interventions may delay necessary emergency care and potentially worsen the client's condition.
3. A nurse is caring for several clients with dehydration. The nurse assesses the client with which finding as needing oxygen therapy?
- A. Tenting of skin on the back of the hand
- B. Increased urine osmolarity
- C. Weight loss of 10 pounds
- D. Pulse rate of 115 beats/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the pulse rate of 115 beats/min. A rapid pulse rate is a sign of compensatory mechanisms in response to dehydration, indicating that the body is trying to deliver oxygen more efficiently. Oxygen therapy may be needed to support the increased oxygen demand. Tenting of skin on the back of the hand is a classic sign of dehydration due to decreased skin turgor. Increased urine osmolarity and weight loss are also indicators of dehydration, but they do not directly suggest a need for oxygen therapy.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. The client's respiratory rate is 33 breaths/min and blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. Which action does the nurse take first?
- A. Administer prescribed diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
- B. Continue to monitor the client's vital signs.
- C. Stop the infusion of packed red blood cells.
- D. Slow the infusion rate of the transfusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of a potential transfusion reaction, indicated by an increased respiratory rate. The nurse's initial action should be to slow down the infusion rate of the packed red blood cells to prevent further complications. Administering diphenhydramine or stopping the infusion should not be the first actions taken, as the priority is to ensure the client's safety and prevent adverse reactions. Continuing to monitor vital signs without taking immediate action to address the increased respiratory rate would delay appropriate intervention.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
- B. International normalized ratio (INR) of 4
- C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds
- D. Positive pregnancy test
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.
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