a female client with deteriorating neurologic function states i am worried i will not be able to care for my young children how does the nurse respond
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Endocrinology Exam

1. A female client with deteriorating neurologic function states, "I am worried I will not be able to care for my young children."? How does the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client expresses worry about not being able to care for her children due to deteriorating neurologic function, the most appropriate response from the nurse is to gather more information from the client. This open-ended approach allows the nurse to better understand the client's specific concerns and needs, leading to tailored interventions and support. Choice A is dismissive and may make the client feel guilty for needing help. Choice B focuses on external resources without addressing the client's worries directly. Choice C suggests a psychological referral without exploring the client's concerns further. Therefore, the correct response is to gather more information to provide personalized support.

2. A nurse is caring for several clients with dehydration. The nurse assesses the client with which finding as needing oxygen therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the pulse rate of 115 beats/min. A rapid pulse rate is a sign of compensatory mechanisms in response to dehydration, indicating that the body is trying to deliver oxygen more efficiently. Oxygen therapy may be needed to support the increased oxygen demand. Tenting of skin on the back of the hand is a classic sign of dehydration due to decreased skin turgor. Increased urine osmolarity and weight loss are also indicators of dehydration, but they do not directly suggest a need for oxygen therapy.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.

4. When obtaining a client’s vital signs, the nurse assesses a blood pressure of 134/88 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s best intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the client lifestyle modifications to decrease blood pressure. A blood pressure reading of 134/88 mm Hg falls within the prehypertension range. The initial approach to managing prehypertension involves lifestyle modifications such as dietary changes, exercise, and stress reduction techniques. Calling the healthcare provider without attempting non-pharmacological interventions first is premature. Reassessing blood pressure at the next follow-up appointment may delay necessary interventions. Administering additional antihypertensive medication is not indicated at this stage as lifestyle modifications are the first line of treatment for prehypertension.

5. While taking the history of an older adult client, which assessment finding alerts the nurse that the client needs further assessment for fluid or electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'My rings seem to be tighter this week.' This assessment finding indicates possible fluid retention, which can be a sign of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in an older adult. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically point towards fluid or electrolyte imbalance. Feeling cold, increased urination with coffee consumption, and feeling thirsty in the summer are not direct indicators of fluid or electrolyte imbalance in this context.

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