Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is giving digoxin to a client. What is the most important parameter to check before administration?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart rate. Before administering digoxin, it is crucial to check the client's heart rate because digoxin can cause bradycardia, an abnormally slow heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate is essential to prevent potential complications associated with digoxin therapy. Choices B, C, and D are less critical parameters to assess before administering digoxin. While blood pressure is also important to monitor during digoxin therapy, the most crucial parameter to check due to the medication's potential effect on heart rate is the heart rate itself.

2. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.

3. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

4. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer a potassium supplement.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: With a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L, which is high, the priority action for the nurse is to hold the spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, it is crucial to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia by discontinuing the medication. Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary for further guidance and potential adjustments to the treatment plan. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would be contraindicated since the client already has elevated potassium levels. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) can worsen hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be unsafe and exacerbate the high potassium levels.

5. What is the procedure to remove a sample of tissue from the lung for examination under a microscope?

• A. Lung biopsy
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Thoracentesis
• D. Lobectomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, lung biopsy. A lung biopsy involves removing a small sample of lung tissue for examination under a microscope to diagnose lung conditions. Choice B, bronchoscopy, is a procedure where a thin, flexible tube with a light and camera is inserted into the airways to view the lungs. This procedure is more for diagnostic purposes and not specifically for tissue removal. Choice C, thoracentesis, is a procedure to remove fluid from the pleural space around the lungs for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, not for tissue biopsy. Choice D, lobectomy, is a surgical procedure to remove a lobe of the lung, usually done to treat conditions like lung cancer or severe infections, but it does not involve removing tissue for microscopic examination.

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