the client is on digoxin and has severe digoxin toxicity what is the nursing priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Physical Exam Cardiovascular System

1. The client is on digoxin and has severe digoxin toxicity. What is the nursing priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to give Digibind as an antidote in cases of severe digoxin toxicity. Digibind works by binding to digoxin and preventing it from causing further harm. Checking the potassium level (choice A) is important but not the priority when the client has severe toxicity. Changing the dosing to every other day (choice C) is not appropriate in the setting of severe toxicity where immediate action is required. Giving a potassium supplement (choice D) may be needed eventually, but the priority is to administer Digibind to counteract the toxic effects of digoxin.

2. The client on warfarin has an INR of 3.8. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.8 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin. Holding the next dose of warfarin would be appropriate if the INR was too high, but not as the first-line action. Increasing the dose of warfarin would worsen the situation by further increasing the INR. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to address the elevated INR is necessary.

3. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.

4. What is the amount of tension the ventricle must develop during contraction to eject blood from the left ventricle into the aorta?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Afterload is the correct answer because it refers to the pressure or tension that the ventricle must overcome during systole to eject blood into the aorta. Preload, on the other hand, is the degree of stretch of the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole before it contracts. Automaticity is the ability of the heart to generate electrical impulses independently, and ejection fraction is the percentage of blood pumped out of the ventricle with each heartbeat. Therefore, in the context of the question, afterload best describes the amount of tension the ventricle must develop to eject blood into the aorta.

5. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to a client with a heart rate of 58 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 58 bpm is considered low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse's priority action should be to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment. Choice A is incorrect because administering the beta blocker without considering the low heart rate can worsen the condition. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the dose of the beta blocker can lead to further slowing of the heart rate, which is not safe in this situation. Choice D is not the priority action; holding the medication and seeking guidance from the healthcare provider is more crucial.

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