Nursing Elites

1. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?

• A. Angina Pectoris
• B. Essential HTN
• C. Atrial Fibrillation
• D. Vasospastic Angina

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.

2. A preschool-age child is admitted to the hospital with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN). Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this child?

• A. Risk for Injury related to hypertension.
• B. Altered Growth and Development related to chronic disease.
• C. Risk for Infection related to hypertension.
• D. Fluid Volume Excess related to decreased plasma filtration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a preschool-age child with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN) is 'Risk for Injury related to hypertension' due to the potential complications such as hypertensive encephalopathy. Hypertension poses an immediate threat to the child's well-being, making it crucial to address the risk for injury associated with elevated blood pressure as the top priority.

3. In the morning, a healthcare professional receives change-of-shift report on four pediatric clients, each of whom has some form of fluid-volume excess. Which of the children should the healthcare professional see first?

• A. The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion
• B. The child with hepatomegaly and normal respiratory rate
• C. The child with dependent and sacral edema and regular pulse
• D. The child with periorbital edema and normal respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion should be seen first. Tachypnea indicates an increased respiratory rate, a sign of possible respiratory distress. Pulmonary congestion suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, posing a serious risk to respiratory function. Immediate attention is crucial in this case. Choice B is incorrect as hepatomegaly alone does not indicate an acute issue requiring immediate attention. Choices C and D, while showing signs of fluid-volume excess, do not present the same level of respiratory compromise as tachypnea and pulmonary congestion, making them lower priority.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?

• A. Bruising
• B. Petechiae
• C. Elevated WBC count
• D. Elevated platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding to report for a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia is petechiae. Petechiae indicate a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare provider should promptly report petechiae to initiate appropriate interventions to prevent bleeding complications.

5. Which assessment finding would necessitate action by the nurse for a 10-month-old child who is 4 hours postoperative for the placement of a urethral stent?

• A. Bloody urine
• B. One void since returning from surgery
• C. Bladder spasms responding to pharmacologic intervention
• D. Double diapering from the previous shift

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a postoperative scenario after the placement of a urethral stent, monitoring the child's voiding frequency is crucial. Having only one void since returning from surgery could indicate potential issues like urinary retention, which necessitates prompt nursing intervention to prevent complications.

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