Nursing Elites

1. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?

• A. Angina Pectoris
• B. Essential HTN
• C. Atrial Fibrillation
• D. Vasospastic Angina

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.

2. A parent of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Offer the infant feedings every 2 hours.
• B. Position the infant upright after feedings.
• C. Feed the infant thickened formula.
• D. Place the infant in a prone position after feedings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct posture after feedings is crucial for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux to reduce the risk of regurgitation. Placing the infant upright helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus, minimizing symptoms of reflux.

3. The nurse is providing care for a pediatric client in the emergency department (ED) with a diagnosis of decreased level of consciousness (LOC) secondary to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which healthcare provider order should the nurse question?

• A. Passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion
• B. Oxygen at 2 L nasal cannula to maintain saturation above 95%
• C. Hourly vital signs and neurologic checks
• D. Elevate head of bed 30 degrees

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a pediatric client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and decreased level of consciousness (LOC), passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion should be questioned as they can potentially increase intracranial pressure. This action may not be safe for the client's condition. The other options are appropriate interventions for managing a pediatric client with increased ICP and decreased LOC.

4. Prior to hydrotherapy treatment for wound debridement following a burn injury, which of the following actions should be taken?

• A. Apply topical antimicrobial ointment to the child's wound
• B. Place a mesh gauze dressing over the child's wound
• C. Administer an analgesic to the child
• D. Initiate prophylactic antibiotic therapy for the child

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prior to hydrotherapy for wound debridement, it is crucial to administer an analgesic to the preschooler. The procedure is known to be extremely painful, and providing analgesia or sedation is essential to manage the discomfort and pain experienced by the child during the treatment. Choice A is incorrect because applying topical antimicrobial ointment is not a pre-procedural requirement but rather a post-procedure wound care step. Choice B is incorrect as placing a mesh gauze dressing does not address the pain management aspect. Choice D is also incorrect as prophylactic antibiotic therapy is not the primary intervention needed before hydrotherapy for wound debridement.

5. What does the abbreviation BPD mean in a medical chart?

• A. Brain premature deficit
• B. Bronchiopulmonary dysplasia
• C. Bilateral partial disorder
• D. Baby post delivery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bronchiopulmonary Dysplasia. BPD refers to a chronic lung disorder that primarily affects premature infants or those who have been on ventilator support. It is characterized by abnormal development of the lungs and breathing difficulties. This abbreviation is commonly seen on medical charts in neonatal and pediatric settings.

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