Nursing Elites

1. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?

• A. Angina Pectoris
• B. Essential HTN
• C. Atrial Fibrillation
• D. Vasospastic Angina

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.

2. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate when assessing a child admitted to the hospital unit with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS)?

• A. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema
• B. Hematuria, bacteriuria, and weight gain
• C. Decreased urine specific gravity and increased urinary output
• D. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, and fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. Proteinuria results from the loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia. The low oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. These clinical manifestations are classic signs of MCNS and help differentiate it from other renal conditions.

3. A healthcare professional is performing hearing screenings for children at a community health fair. Which of the following children should the professional refer to a provider for a more extensive hearing evaluation?

• A. A toddler who is 18 months old and has unintelligible speech
• B. An infant who is 3 months old and has an exaggerated startle response
• C. A preschooler who is 4 years old and prefers playing with others rather than alone
• D. An infant who is 8 months old and is not yet making babbling sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The healthcare professional should refer an infant who is not making babbling sounds by the age of 7 months to a provider for a more extensive evaluation of hearing. Babbling sounds are a developmental milestone that typically occurs by 7 months of age. Delayed or absent babbling can indicate potential hearing issues that warrant further assessment.

4. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

5. The patient is receiving a heparin infusion for the treatment of pulmonary embolism. Which assessment finding is most likely related to an adverse effect of heparin?

• A. HR of 60 bpm
• B. BP of 160/88
• C. Discolored urine
• D. Inspiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary and most serious adverse effect of heparin is bleeding. However, discolored urine can indicate bleeding into the urinary tract, which is a potential adverse effect of heparin therapy. While changes in heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) can occur due to various reasons, discolored urine specifically points towards a potential adverse effect related to heparin therapy.

Similar Questions