the nurse is caring for a patient who has just been given a 6 month prognosis following a diagnosis of extensive stage small cell lung cancer the pati

ATI RN

Oncology Test Bank

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been given a 6-month prognosis following a diagnosis of extensive-stage small-cell lung cancer. The patient states that he would like to die at home, but the team believes that the patient's care needs are unable to be met in a home environment. What might you suggest as an alternative?

A. Discuss a referral for rehabilitation hospital.
B. Panel the patient for a personal care home.
C. Discuss a referral for acute care.
D. Discuss a referral for hospice care.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate alternative to address the patient's desire to die at home while ensuring proper care is hospice care. Hospice care is specifically designed to provide support to patients and families in situations where the patient's needs cannot be met at home. Rehabilitation hospital (Choice A), personal care home (Choice B), and acute care (Choice C) are not the most suitable options in this case as they do not focus on end-of-life care and support like hospice care does.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. While providing patient education, what potential adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient?

A. Impaired nutritional status
B. Cognitive changes
C. Diarrhea
D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Impaired nutritional status is a potential adverse effect of radiotherapy to the head and neck due to alterations in oral mucosa and taste. While cognitive changes, diarrhea, and alopecia can be side effects of other treatments or conditions, they are not typically associated with external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on discussing the risk of impaired nutritional status with the patient.

3. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?

A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.

4. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

A. Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
B. Offer small, frequent meals that are bland and easy to digest.
C. Encourage the client to rest after meals to reduce nausea.
D. Instruct the client to use relaxation techniques.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy. Administering antiemetics before chemotherapy is crucial to prevent nausea rather than treating it after it occurs. This proactive approach helps in minimizing the side effects. Choice B, offering small, frequent meals, can be beneficial but is not the first intervention for severe nausea and vomiting. Choice C, encouraging rest after meals, may help but is not the priority when the client is experiencing severe symptoms. Choice D, instructing the client to use relaxation techniques, is not the first-line intervention for severe nausea and vomiting in a client receiving chemotherapy.

5. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?

A. Gastroduodenostomy
B. Gastrojejunostomy
C. Gastroileostomy
D. Gastrostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.