Nursing Elites

1. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?

• A. There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma.
• B. Infection is the most likely cause of the patients change in health status.
• C. The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia.
• D. The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.

2. Which of the following statements by the oncology nurse displays understanding about antineoplastic medications?

• A. Chemotherapy is not going to spread throughout the body
• B. Chemotherapy affects the immune system
• C. Chemotherapy is specific to cancer cells only
• D. Chemotherapy makes the patient radioactive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include both cancerous and healthy cells, such as those in the bone marrow, hair follicles, and the lining of the digestive tract. Since the bone marrow produces immune cells (white blood cells), chemotherapy can weaken the immune system by reducing the body’s ability to produce these cells, making patients more susceptible to infections. This is why close monitoring and supportive measures to protect immune function are important during chemotherapy treatment.

3. In an adult patient, which assessment finding is considered diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

• A. Schwann cells
• B. Reed-Sternberg cells
• C. Lewy bodies
• D. Loops of Henle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reed-Sternberg cells. In Hodgkin lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is diagnostic. These cells are large, atypical cells originating from B-lymphocytes. They are distinctive in appearance and are key to diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Schwann cells are related to nerve function, Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson's disease, and Loops of Henle are structures in the kidney, none of which are specific to Hodgkin lymphoma.

4. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?

• A. Gastroduodenostomy
• B. Gastrojejunostomy
• C. Gastroileostomy
• D. Gastrostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.

5. Gastric cancer is known to have numerous risk factors. Which of the following is not a risk factor?

• A. Diet high in sodium
• B. Diet with high amounts of chili garlic
• C. Smoking
• D. Diet high in fiber

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A diet high in fiber is not a risk factor for gastric cancer; in fact, it is generally considered protective against cancers. High sodium intake (Choice A) has been associated with an increased risk of gastric cancer. Diets with high amounts of chili garlic (Choice B) may irritate the stomach lining, potentially contributing to the development of gastric cancer. Smoking (Choice C) is a well-established risk factor for various types of cancers, including gastric cancer.

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