a nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever malaise and a white blood cell count that is elevated which of the following principles sh
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Oncology Questions

1. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.

2. A client is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. The nurse monitors the client for which of the following signs indicating a complication of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated temperature. A fever may indicate infection, a common and serious complication of chemotherapy, requiring prompt intervention. Choice A, Alopecia, is a common side effect of chemotherapy but not a sign of a complication. Choice B, Weight gain, is not typically a sign of a complication of chemotherapy. Choice D, Decreased hemoglobin level, may occur due to chemotherapy but is not a direct sign of a complication.

3. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

4. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

5. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET) who is at risk for thromboembolic events. What nursing intervention is most appropriate for this patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering anticoagulant therapy is crucial to prevent thromboembolic events in patients with ET.

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