Nursing Elites

1. A nurse at a long-term care facility is amending the care plan of a resident who has just been diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET). The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication?

• A. Dalteparin
• B. Allopurinol
• C. Hydroxyurea
• D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hydroxyurea is effective in lowering the platelet count for patients with ET.

2. Nurse Joy is caring for a client with cancer who has been receiving cisplatin (Platinol-AQ). Which laboratory result requires an intervention by the nurse?

• A. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/microL
• B. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 18 mg/dL
• D. Platelet count of 150,000 cells/microL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A BUN level of 18 mg/dL is within the normal range; however, since cisplatin is nephrotoxic, it requires close monitoring. Elevated BUN levels can indicate impaired kidney function. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to cisplatin therapy or require immediate intervention.

3. A patient with multiple myeloma has developed hypercalcemia. What symptoms should the nurse monitor for in this patient?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. In patients with multiple myeloma who have developed hypercalcemia, monitoring for muscle weakness is crucial. Hypercalcemia can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Choice A, increased heart rate, is more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration or anxiety rather than hypercalcemia. Choice B, decreased urine output, is commonly seen in conditions leading to acute kidney injury rather than hypercalcemia. Choice D, hypertension, is not a typical symptom of hypercalcemia and is more commonly associated with other conditions like uncontrolled high blood pressure.

4. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

5. A new nurse has been assigned a client who is in the hospital to receive iodine-131 treatment. Which action by the nurse is best?

• A. Ensure the client is placed in protective isolation.
• B. Have pregnant visitors stay 6 feet from the client.
• C. No special action is necessary to care for this client.
• D. Read the policy on handling radioactive excreta.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Handling radioactive excreta requires special precautions; the nurse must be familiar with the facility's policies.

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