ATI RN
ATI Oncology Quiz
1. A nurse at a long-term care facility is amending the care plan of a resident who has just been diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET). The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication?
- A. Dalteparin
- B. Allopurinol
- C. Hydroxyurea
- D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hydroxyurea is effective in lowering the platelet count for patients with ET.
2. A patient with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) is receiving monoclonal antibody therapy. What is the priority assessment during the infusion of this medication?
- A. Vital signs
- B. Skin reactions
- C. Respiratory status
- D. Renal function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vital signs. Monitoring vital signs is crucial during the infusion of monoclonal antibody therapy as there is a risk of infusion reactions such as fevers, chills, hypotension, and tachycardia. Assessing vital signs allows for early detection of any adverse reactions, enabling prompt intervention. Skin reactions (choice B), respiratory status (choice C), and renal function (choice D) are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority during the infusion of monoclonal antibody therapy.
3. A patient diagnosed with acute myelogenous leukemia has just been admitted to the oncology unit. When writing this patient's care plan, what potential complication should the nurse address?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Hemorrhage
- C. Arteritis
- D. Liver dysfunction
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. Patients with acute myelogenous leukemia are at high risk of hemorrhage due to low platelet count and abnormal clotting factors caused by bone marrow suppression. Pancreatitis (choice A) is not a common complication of acute myelogenous leukemia. Arteritis (choice C) refers to inflammation of arteries and is not a typical complication of this type of leukemia. Liver dysfunction (choice D) is not a primary concern in the immediate care plan for a patient with acute myelogenous leukemia.
4. Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which preprocedure instruction to the client?
- A. Eat a light breakfast only
- B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
- C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
- D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pelvic ultrasound requires the client to have a full bladder because the bladder acts as a window through which pelvic organs, such as the uterus and ovaries, can be visualized more clearly. The full bladder pushes the intestines out of the way and provides a better acoustic pathway for the ultrasound waves. Without this, the pelvic organs might be obscured, and the images would be less accurate.
5. The nurse manager is teaching the nursing staff about signs and symptoms related to hypercalcemia in a client with metastatic prostate cancer and tells the staff that which is a late sign of this oncological emergency?
- A. Headache
- B. Dysphagia
- C. Constipation
- D. Electrocardiographic changes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Electrocardiographic changes. In clients with metastatic prostate cancer, hypercalcemia can lead to various signs and symptoms. Electrocardiographic changes are considered a late sign of hypercalcemia, indicating severe electrolyte imbalance. Headache (choice A), dysphagia (choice B), and constipation (choice C) are earlier signs of hypercalcemia and may precede the development of more severe symptoms like electrocardiographic changes.
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