Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Jane is providing care for a client with superior vena cava syndrome. Which of the following interventions would be the priority?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed
• B. Administer steroids as prescribed
• C. Provide supplemental oxygen
• D. Administer diuretics as prescribed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce the pressure on the superior vena cava, improve venous return, and facilitate breathing in clients with superior vena cava syndrome. Administering steroids (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority in the immediate care of a client with superior vena cava syndrome. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice C) may help improve oxygenation but does not directly address the underlying issue of venous congestion. Administering diuretics (Choice D) may be contraindicated as it can further decrease preload and worsen the condition in superior vena cava syndrome.

2. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a female client who is taking hormone therapy for breast cancer. What assessment finding requires the healthcare professional to notify the primary health care provider immediately?

• A. Irregular menses.
• B. Edema in the lower extremities.
• C. Ongoing breast tenderness.
• D. Red, warm, swollen calf.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A red, warm, swollen calf may indicate a deep vein thrombosis, which is a medical emergency. This finding requires immediate notification of the primary health care provider to prevent potential complications such as pulmonary embolism. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of life-threatening conditions and should be monitored but do not require immediate notification like a suspected deep vein thrombosis.

4. Which of the following is a correct statement by the nurse to a patient under radiation therapy?

• A. Brachytherapy can be performed by a pregnant nurse.
• B. Teletherapy makes the patient radioactive.
• C. Brachytherapy is an internal radiation therapy.
• D. Teletherapy requires proper disposal of feces since it can be a source of radiation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brachytherapy is an internal radiation therapy.' Brachytherapy involves the placement of radioactive sources inside or next to the area requiring treatment. This differs from teletherapy, which is external radiation therapy. Choice A is incorrect as pregnant individuals should avoid exposure to radiation. Choice B is incorrect because teletherapy does not make the patient radioactive; the radiation source is external. Choice D is incorrect as feces is not a significant source of radiation during teletherapy.

5. Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which preprocedure instruction to the client?

• A. Eat a light breakfast only
• B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
• C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
• D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pelvic ultrasound requires the client to have a full bladder because the bladder acts as a window through which pelvic organs, such as the uterus and ovaries, can be visualized more clearly. The full bladder pushes the intestines out of the way and provides a better acoustic pathway for the ultrasound waves. Without this, the pelvic organs might be obscured, and the images would be less accurate.

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