Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?

• A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
• B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
• C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
• D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testicular cancer is indeed highly treatable and curable, particularly when detected early through regular self-examinations. The survival rates for testicular cancer are very high, with many cases being treatable even if the cancer has spread, thanks to effective treatment options such as surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Educating clients on the importance of early detection through monthly testicular self-examinations can empower them to recognize any changes early, increasing the likelihood of successful treatment.

2. A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma and the client asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse bases the response on which description of this disorder?

• A. Altered red blood cell production
• B. Altered production of lymph nodes
• C. Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes
• D. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that involves the malignant proliferation of plasma cells, which are a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies. In multiple myeloma, these abnormal plasma cells accumulate in the bone marrow, where they interfere with the production of normal blood cells and lead to the formation of tumors in the bones. This can cause bone pain, fractures, anemia, and impaired immune function. The excessive production of abnormal antibodies can also result in kidney damage and other systemic complications.

3. In an adult patient, which assessment finding is considered diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

• A. Schwann cells
• B. Reed-Sternberg cells
• C. Lewy bodies
• D. Loops of Henle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reed-Sternberg cells. In Hodgkin lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is diagnostic. These cells are large, atypical cells originating from B-lymphocytes. They are distinctive in appearance and are key to diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Schwann cells are related to nerve function, Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson's disease, and Loops of Henle are structures in the kidney, none of which are specific to Hodgkin lymphoma.

4. Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which preprocedure instruction to the client?

• A. Eat a light breakfast only
• B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
• C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
• D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pelvic ultrasound requires the client to have a full bladder because the bladder acts as a window through which pelvic organs, such as the uterus and ovaries, can be visualized more clearly. The full bladder pushes the intestines out of the way and provides a better acoustic pathway for the ultrasound waves. Without this, the pelvic organs might be obscured, and the images would be less accurate.

5. A patient with leukemia has developed stomatitis and is experiencing a nutritional deficit. An oral anesthetic has consequently been prescribed. What health education should the nurse provide to the patient?

• A. Chew with care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue.
• B. Use the oral anesthetic 1 hour prior to meal time.
• C. Brush teeth before and after eating.
• D. Swallow slowly and deliberately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If oral anesthetics are used, the patient must be warned to chew with extreme care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue or buccal mucosa.

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