Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a patient with leukemia who has been experiencing severe fatigue. What is the most appropriate intervention to include in the care plan?

• A. Encouraging the patient to remain in bed
• B. Scheduling frequent rest periods
• C. Providing a high-calorie diet
• D. Administering blood transfusions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with leukemia, severe fatigue is a common symptom due to factors such as anemia, the disease process itself, and the effects of treatments like chemotherapy. The most appropriate intervention is to schedule frequent rest periods to help manage fatigue while encouraging a balance between rest and activity. This approach allows the patient to conserve energy for essential tasks and prevent exhaustion, without promoting complete inactivity, which can lead to deconditioning.

2. When working with clients experiencing alopecia, what is the best method for a nurse to help them manage the psychosocial impact of this issue?

• A. Assisting the client in pre-planning for this event.
• B. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary.
• C. Teaching the client ways to protect the scalp.
• D. Telling the client that there are worse side effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in pre-planning for alopecia is the best method to help them manage the psychosocial impact of the issue. By helping clients anticipate and prepare for the challenges associated with alopecia, they can cope better with the psychological impact. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary (choice B) may provide false hope as some types of alopecia are permanent. Teaching ways to protect the scalp (choice C) is important but not the most effective method for managing the psychosocial impact. Telling the client that there are worse side effects (choice D) is dismissive of the client's feelings and not helpful in addressing the psychosocial impact of alopecia.

3. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?

• A. There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma.
• B. Infection is the most likely cause of the patients change in health status.
• C. The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia.
• D. The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.

4. A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Isolate the client in a private room.
• B. Administer isoniazid (INH) as prescribed.
• C. Schedule the client for a chest x-ray.
• D. Begin a 9-month course of medication therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.

5. Nurse Ben is reviewing the laboratory results of a client undergoing chemotherapy. Which of the following values would require immediate intervention?

• A. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3
• B. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL
• D. Absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infection. Neutrophils are crucial in fighting off infections; a low count increases susceptibility to infections. Platelet count, white blood cell count, and hemoglobin levels are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

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