Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a patient with leukemia who has been experiencing severe fatigue. What is the most appropriate intervention to include in the care plan?

• A. Encouraging the patient to remain in bed
• B. Scheduling frequent rest periods
• C. Providing a high-calorie diet
• D. Administering blood transfusions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with leukemia, severe fatigue is a common symptom due to factors such as anemia, the disease process itself, and the effects of treatments like chemotherapy. The most appropriate intervention is to schedule frequent rest periods to help manage fatigue while encouraging a balance between rest and activity. This approach allows the patient to conserve energy for essential tasks and prevent exhaustion, without promoting complete inactivity, which can lead to deconditioning.

2. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

3. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patients care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk?

• A. Labyrinthitis
• B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Decreased bone density
• D. Hypercoagulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In multiple myeloma, the malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone marrow leads to the secretion of osteoclast-activating factors, which increase the breakdown of bone tissue (osteolysis). This results in decreased bone density, osteoporosis, and osteolytic lesions, making bones fragile and more prone to pathologic fractures. Patients with multiple myeloma are at high risk for fractures even with minimal trauma due to the weakened bone structure, which is why Risk for Injury is a key diagnosis.

4. A client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which condition?

• A. Rupture of the bladder
• B. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
• C. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
• D. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to the passage of urine through the vagina. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including radiation therapy. Choice A, rupture of the bladder, is incorrect because a rupture would present with more severe symptoms and is not consistent with the client's description. Choice C, extreme stress, is incorrect as it does not explain the physical symptom of voiding through the vagina. Choice D, altered perineal sensation, is incorrect as it does not involve a direct connection between the bladder and the vagina.

5. A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?

• A. Disease prophylaxis
• B. Risk reduction
• C. Secondary prevention
• D. Tertiary prevention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Secondary prevention involves screening and early detection activities that seek to identify early-stage cancer in individuals who lack symptoms.

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