ATI RN
ATI Oncology Quiz
1. A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?
- A. Disease prophylaxis
- B. Risk reduction
- C. Secondary prevention
- D. Tertiary prevention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Secondary prevention involves screening and early detection activities that seek to identify early-stage cancer in individuals who lack symptoms.
2. Nurse Mandy is teaching a client about the side effects of radiation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Radiation therapy is painless.
- B. You may experience hair loss.
- C. Fatigue is a common side effect.
- D. You may experience nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fatigue is one of the most frequent and profound side effects of radiation therapy. It often occurs because radiation can damage both cancerous and healthy cells, and the body requires energy to repair the damage caused by the treatment. Fatigue from radiation can be cumulative, meaning it may worsen as treatments progress, and can significantly affect the client’s daily activities, requiring the nurse to educate the client on energy conservation techniques.
3. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who is receiving the drug imatinib (Gleevec). What should the nurse monitor in this patient to assess for side effects of this therapy?
- A. Cardiac function
- B. Renal function
- C. Liver function
- D. Pulmonary function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac function. Imatinib can cause fluid retention and heart failure, so cardiac function should be closely monitored. Renal function (choice B) is not typically affected by imatinib. Liver function (choice C) is not the primary concern with this medication. Pulmonary function (choice D) is not directly impacted by imatinib therapy.
4. Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?
- A. Yearly Pap tests
- B. Testicular self-examination
- C. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen
- D. Screening mammograms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Primary prevention involves actions taken to reduce the risk of developing cancer by preventing exposure to known risk factors or promoting healthy behaviors. Teaching patients to wear sunscreen is an example of primary prevention because it aims to reduce the risk of skin cancer by minimizing exposure to harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Encouraging protective measures such as wearing sunscreen, avoiding tanning beds, and wearing protective clothing are all steps to prevent skin cancer before it develops.
5. Nurse Mike is providing care to a client with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The nurse knows that the client is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Which of the following laboratory values requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased uric acid level
- B. Increased serum potassium level
- C. Increased serum sodium level
- D. Increased fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased uric acid level. In tumor lysis syndrome, rapid cell destruction releases large amounts of potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids into the bloodstream. Uric acid can accumulate rapidly, leading to hyperuricemia, which can result in kidney damage due to urate crystal deposition. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent renal complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while electrolyte imbalances are common in tumor lysis syndrome, hyperuricemia with potential kidney damage is the priority concern that requires immediate attention.
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