ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. The client with a chest tube after a coronary artery bypass graft has significantly slowed drainage. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Increase the setting on the suction.
- B. Notify the provider immediately.
- C. Re-position the chest tube.
- D. Take the tubing apart to assess for clots.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: If the drainage from the chest tube decreases significantly, it may indicate a blockage by a clot, potentially leading to cardiac tamponade. The nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Increasing suction, re-positioning the chest tube, or disassembling the tubing independently are not appropriate actions without healthcare provider guidance in this situation.
2. A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Fluconazole
- C. Tobramycin
- D. Vancomycin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the case of anthrax exposure, the recommended antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is effective against the anthrax bacterium, Bacillus anthracis. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication, Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used for bacterial infections, and Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic primarily used for Gram-positive bacterial infections. Therefore, the correct choice is Ciprofloxacin.
3. A client has returned from the surgical suite following surgery for a fractured mandible with intermaxillary fixation. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to take?
- A. Prevent aspiration.
- B. Ensure adequate nutrition.
- C. Promote oral hygiene.
- D. Relieve the client's pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Preventing aspiration is the priority for a client with intermaxillary fixation following mandibular surgery. Aspiration can occur due to difficulty swallowing or improper positioning, posing a serious risk to the client's respiratory status. It is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client's airway is clear and that they are positioned correctly to prevent any potential aspiration events.
4. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Apneustic respirations
- C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
5. A client's arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.3 and a PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg. The client is experiencing which of the following acid-base imbalances?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 > 45 mm Hg) leading to a decrease in pH (<7.35). The given values of a pH of 7.3 and PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg indicate respiratory acidosis. Metabolic acidosis involves a primary decrease in bicarbonate levels with a compensatory decrease in PaCO2 to maintain balance. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Respiratory alkalosis is marked by low PaCO2 and increased pH levels.
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