ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. The client with a chest tube after a coronary artery bypass graft has significantly slowed drainage. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Increase the setting on the suction.
- B. Notify the provider immediately.
- C. Re-position the chest tube.
- D. Take the tubing apart to assess for clots.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: If the drainage from the chest tube decreases significantly, it may indicate a blockage by a clot, potentially leading to cardiac tamponade. The nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Increasing suction, re-positioning the chest tube, or disassembling the tubing independently are not appropriate actions without healthcare provider guidance in this situation.
2. A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (SATA)
- A. Age
- B. Hypertension
- C. Obesity
- D. Smoking
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is a natural process of life.
3. A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Albuterol (Proventil)
- B. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
- C. Salmeterol (Serevent)
- D. Fluticasone (Flovent)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of asthma, the priority is to administer a short-acting beta2-agonist like Albuterol (Proventil) first. Albuterol acts quickly to dilate the airways and provide immediate relief of bronchospasm. Ipratropium (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic that can be used as an adjunct therapy. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting beta2-agonist intended for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone (Flovent) is a corticosteroid used for long-term asthma control and should not be the initial medication given during an acute exacerbation.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
5. A client with COPD is developing a plan of care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Restrict the client's fluid intake to less than 2 L/day
- B. Provide the client with a low-protein diet
- C. Have the client use the early-morning hours for exercise and activity
- D. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In COPD, pursed-lip breathing helps improve breathing efficiency by maintaining positive pressure in the airways, preventing airway collapse, and promoting oxygenation. This technique assists in controlling respiratory rate, reducing dyspnea, and enhancing oxygen saturation levels. Restricting fluid intake is not typically a part of COPD management. Providing a low-protein diet is not a standard intervention for COPD. Early-morning hours are generally not recommended for exercise due to cooler temperatures and higher pollution levels, which can exacerbate COPD symptoms.
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