the nurse is caring for a client on amiodarone what adverse effect is the nurse most concerned about
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Nursing Elites

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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf

1. The nurse is caring for a client on amiodarone. What adverse effect is the nurse most concerned about?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulmonary toxicity. Amiodarone is known to cause pulmonary toxicity, which can be serious and even fatal in some cases. This adverse effect includes interstitial pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and acute respiratory distress syndrome. Monitoring for symptoms such as cough, dyspnea, and fever is crucial. Choices B, Liver toxicity, C, Thyroid dysfunction, and D, Renal dysfunction, are incorrect because while amiodarone can also affect the liver, thyroid, and kidneys, the most concerning adverse effect that requires immediate attention and monitoring is pulmonary toxicity.

2. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

3. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: With a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L, which is high, the priority action for the nurse is to hold the spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, it is crucial to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia by discontinuing the medication. Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary for further guidance and potential adjustments to the treatment plan. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would be contraindicated since the client already has elevated potassium levels. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) can worsen hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be unsafe and exacerbate the high potassium levels.

4. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.

5. What type of imaging test uses X-rays to visualize the blood vessels after injecting them with a contrast dye?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Angiography is the correct answer because it is an imaging test that specifically uses X-rays to visualize blood vessels by injecting them with a contrast dye. This procedure is crucial for diagnosing conditions such as blockages or aneurysms. The other options, CT scan, MRI, and ultrasound, do not involve the use of contrast dye to visualize blood vessels with X-rays.

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