Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?

• A. The pancreas
• B. The adrenal cortex
• C. The adrenal medulla
• D. The anterior pituitary gland

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The adrenal medulla. Norepinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla and is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response. The pancreas (choice A) secretes insulin and glucagon, not norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex (choice B) secretes hormones like cortisol and aldosterone, but not norepinephrine. The anterior pituitary gland (choice D) secretes various hormones like growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone, but not norepinephrine.

2. What instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon?

• A. Explain that exacerbations will not occur in the summer
• B. Use nicotine gum to help quit smoking
• C. Wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure
• D. Avoid prolonged exposure to direct sunlight

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This instruction is crucial for managing Raynaud’s phenomenon as it helps prevent vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is not directly related to managing Raynaud’s phenomenon. Choice D is also irrelevant as direct sunlight exposure does not typically worsen symptoms of Raynaud’s phenomenon.

3. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

4. The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?

• A. Preparation
• B. Training
• C. Mobilization
• D. Selection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' In the context of the Army Medical Department, mobilization refers to the process of preparing and organizing medical personnel and resources for deployment during military operations. While preparation, training, and selection are important functions within the military medical field, mobilization specifically relates to the readiness and deployment of medical assets in response to operational requirements, making it the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

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