Nursing Elites

1. The client was asked to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is being tested?

• A. Optic
• B. Olfactory
• C. Oculomotor
• D. Trochlear

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Optic. The Snellen chart is used to test visual acuity, which assesses the function of the optic nerve responsible for vision. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Olfactory relates to the sense of smell, oculomotor controls eye movement, and trochlear controls certain eye muscles. Therefore, the only option related to vision testing in this context is the optic nerve.

2. What is a muscular enlarged pouch or sac that lies slightly to the left and is used for the temporary storage of food?

• A. Gallbladder
• B. Urinary bladder
• C. Stomach
• D. Lungs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the stomach. The stomach is a muscular organ located slightly to the left in the abdominal cavity. It serves as a temporary storage site for food where it is mixed with digestive enzymes and acids to begin the process of digestion. The gallbladder (Choice A) is not involved in food storage; it stores bile produced by the liver. The urinary bladder (Choice B) is part of the urinary system and stores urine. The lungs (Choice D) are responsible for respiration, not food storage.

3. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

4. In the emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client involved in a motor vehicle crash. Findings include absent breath sounds in the left lower lobe with dyspnea, blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, heart rate 124/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.6 C (101.4 F), and SaO2 92% on room air. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain a chest X-ray.
• B. Prepare for chest tube insertion.
• C. Administer oxygen via high-flow mask.
• D. Initiate IV access.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of respiratory distress, including absent breath sounds, dyspnea, and a low SaO2 level. The priority action should be to improve oxygenation by administering oxygen via a high-flow mask. This intervention aims to increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs, helping to address the hypoxemia. Once oxygenation is optimized, further interventions, such as obtaining a chest X-ray, preparing for chest tube insertion, or initiating IV access, can be considered based on the client's condition and healthcare provider's orders.

5. When caring for a client who is to have a line placed for hemodynamic monitoring, which statement by the newly licensed nurse indicates effectiveness of the teaching?

• A. Air should be instilled into the monitoring system after the procedure.
• B. The client should be positioned on the left side after the procedure.
• C. The transducer should be level with the second intercostal space after the line is placed.
• D. A chest x-ray is needed to verify placement after the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a line is placed for hemodynamic monitoring, it is crucial to confirm its correct placement. The definitive way to verify the placement is through a chest x-ray. This ensures that the line is appropriately positioned without complications. Options A, B, and C do not address the essential step of confirming the line's placement, making them incorrect choices.

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