Nursing Elites

1. The client was asked to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is being tested?

• A. Optic
• B. Olfactory
• C. Oculomotor
• D. Trochlear

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Optic. The Snellen chart is used to test visual acuity, which assesses the function of the optic nerve responsible for vision. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Olfactory relates to the sense of smell, oculomotor controls eye movement, and trochlear controls certain eye muscles. Therefore, the only option related to vision testing in this context is the optic nerve.

2. The client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of phenelzine. The nurse should instruct the client that it is not safe to eat which of the following foods while taking this medication?

• A. whole grain bread
• B. Avocados
• C. Smoked salmon
• D. Pepperoni pizza

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avocados contain high levels of tyramine, which can cause a hypertensive crisis when consumed with phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). It is essential for clients taking MAOIs to avoid foods rich in tyramine to prevent dangerous interactions and potential health risks.

3. What is the best position for examining the rectum?

• A. Prone
• B. Sim's
• C. Knee-chest
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The knee-chest position is the most optimal position for examining the rectum. In this position, the patient kneels on the examination table with their chest resting on it, creating a straight line from the head to the lower back. This position allows for easier access and visualization of the rectal area, making it the preferred choice for rectal examinations. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down and is not ideal for rectal exams as it does not provide good access. Sim's position (choice B) is lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh flexed, also not ideal for rectal exams. Lithotomy position (choice D) is lying on the back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, primarily used for gynecological exams and surgery, not for rectal examinations.

4. A client is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following supplies should NOT be in the client's room?

• A. Oxygen equipment
• B. Incentive spirometer
• C. Pulse oximeter
• D. Sterile dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a thoracentesis procedure, the focus is on draining fluid or air from the pleural space. An incentive spirometer, which helps improve lung function, is not a necessary supply for this specific procedure. Oxygen equipment, pulse oximeter for monitoring oxygen saturation levels, and sterile dressing for wound care may be needed during or after the procedure.

5. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
• B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
• C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
• D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.

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