Nursing Elites

1. The client was asked to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is being tested?

• A. Optic
• B. Olfactory
• C. Oculomotor
• D. Trochlear

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Optic. The Snellen chart is used to test visual acuity, which assesses the function of the optic nerve responsible for vision. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Olfactory relates to the sense of smell, oculomotor controls eye movement, and trochlear controls certain eye muscles. Therefore, the only option related to vision testing in this context is the optic nerve.

2. Studies have shown that about 40% of patients fall out of bed despite the use of side rails; this has led to which of the following conclusions?

• A. Side rails are ineffective
• B. Side rails should not be used
• C. Side rails are a deterrent that prevents a patient from falling out of bed
• D. Side rails are a reminder to a patient not to get out of bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct conclusion drawn from the study is that side rails serve as a reminder to the patient not to get out of bed rather than being a fail-proof preventive measure against falls. While they may not entirely prevent falls, they play a role in prompting the patient to be cautious when moving.

3. A patient presents with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by shortness of breath, orthopnea, thick, tenacious secretions, and a dry hacking cough. An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be:

• A. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions.
• B. Ineffective airway clearance related to dry, hacking cough.
• C. Ineffective individual coping with COPD.
• D. Pain related to immobilization of affected leg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of shortness of breath, orthopnea, thick, tenacious secretions, and a dry hacking cough all point towards a potential airway clearance issue. This makes option A, 'Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions,' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. It directly addresses the thick secretions and suggests a potential cause of the breathing difficulty the patient is experiencing.

4. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Lie on their left side.
• B. Use the incentive spirometer.
• C. Cough at regular intervals.
• D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client following a thoracentesis. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider NOT recognize as risks for complications?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Localized bloody drainage on the dressing
• C. Fever
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a thoracentesis, some expected complications include dyspnea, fever, and hypotension. Localized bloody drainage on the dressing is a common and expected finding post-thoracentesis due to the procedure's nature of puncturing the chest wall. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not consider this finding as a risk for complications.

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