ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The client was asked to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is being tested?
- A. Optic
- B. Olfactory
- C. Oculomotor
- D. Trochlear
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Optic. The Snellen chart is used to test visual acuity, which assesses the function of the optic nerve responsible for vision. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Olfactory relates to the sense of smell, oculomotor controls eye movement, and trochlear controls certain eye muscles. Therefore, the only option related to vision testing in this context is the optic nerve.
2. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature 37.9�C (100.2�F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory distress. Which of the following early manifestations of hypoxemia should the professional recognize?
- A. Confusion
- B. Pale skin
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is an early manifestation of hypoxemia due to decreased oxygenation of the blood. The skin may appear pale as the body redirects blood flow to vital organs in response to low oxygen levels. Confusion, bradycardia, and hypotension may occur as hypoxemia worsens, but pale skin is one of the initial signs that healthcare professionals should recognize when assessing a client experiencing respiratory distress.
4. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
5. A client is receiving discharge instructions from a healthcare provider after being prescribed albuterol for COPD. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. Albuterol can increase my blood sugar levels.
- B. Albuterol can decrease my immune response.
- C. I can experience an increase in my heart rate while taking albuterol.
- D. I may develop mouth sores while taking albuterol.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator commonly used to treat conditions like COPD. One of its common side effects is an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) due to its action on beta-2 receptors in the body. This statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of a potential side effect of albuterol, indicating comprehension of the discharge teaching provided by the healthcare provider.
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