ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The client was asked to read the Snellen chart. Which of the following is being tested?
- A. Optic
- B. Olfactory
- C. Oculomotor
- D. Trochlear
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Optic. The Snellen chart is used to test visual acuity, which assesses the function of the optic nerve responsible for vision. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Olfactory relates to the sense of smell, oculomotor controls eye movement, and trochlear controls certain eye muscles. Therefore, the only option related to vision testing in this context is the optic nerve.
2. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Lie on their left side.
- B. Use the incentive spirometer.
- C. Cough at regular intervals.
- D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.
3. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?
- A. Less than 30 ml/hour
- B. 64 ml in 2 hours
- C. 90 ml in 3 hours
- D. 125 ml in 4 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory distress. Which of the following early manifestations of hypoxemia should the professional recognize?
- A. Confusion
- B. Pale skin
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is an early manifestation of hypoxemia due to decreased oxygenation of the blood. The skin may appear pale as the body redirects blood flow to vital organs in response to low oxygen levels. Confusion, bradycardia, and hypotension may occur as hypoxemia worsens, but pale skin is one of the initial signs that healthcare professionals should recognize when assessing a client experiencing respiratory distress.
5. Why is a precise amount of oxygen necessary for a patient with COPD to prevent which complication?
- A. Cardiac arrest related to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PaCO2)
- B. Circulatory overload due to hypervolemia
- C. Respiratory excitement
- D. Inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In patients with COPD, the respiratory drive is often stimulated by low oxygen levels. Administering too much oxygen can inhibit this hypoxic drive, leading to respiratory depression and potential respiratory failure. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully regulate the oxygen therapy to prevent the inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus in COPD patients.
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