Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

• A. Client who has dysphagia
• B. Client who has AIDS
• C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
• D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

2. Which of the following patients is at greater risk for contracting an infection?

• A. A patient with leukopenia
• B. A patient receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics
• C. A postoperative patient who has undergone orthopedic surgery
• D. A newly diagnosed diabetic patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Leukopenia, characterized by low white blood cell count, significantly reduces the body's ability to fight infections. Patients with leukopenia are at a higher risk of contracting infections due to compromised immune defenses.

3. When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?

• A. Administer antibiotics
• B. Provide supplemental oxygen
• C. Administer antiviral medications
• D. Administer bronchodilators

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.

4. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

5. A client reports that the medication the nurse is administering appears different than what they take at home. Which of the following responses should the nurse take?

• A. Did the doctor discuss with you that there was a change in this medication?
• B. I recommend that you take this medication as prescribed
• C. Do you know why this medication is being prescribed to you?
• D. I will call the pharmacist now to check on this medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client reports that the medication appears different than what they take at home, it is crucial for the nurse to ensure the safety and accuracy of the medication being administered. The most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to call the pharmacist to verify the medication, dosage, and any potential changes. This proactive step helps prevent medication errors and ensures the client's safety and well-being.

Similar Questions