a nurse is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk for developing pneumonia which of the following clients should the nurse not expect to be

ATI RN

ATI Fundamentals

1. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

A. Client who has dysphagia
B. Client who has AIDS
C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

2. How many liters are equal to 1800 ml?

A. 1.8
B. 18000
C. 180
D. 2800

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To convert milliliters (ml) to liters, divide by 1000 since 1 liter is equal to 1000 ml. Therefore, 1800 ml is equal to 1800/1000 = 1.8 liters. Choice A (1.8) is correct. Choice B (18000) is incorrect as it equates to 18000 liters, not 1.8 liters. Choice C (180) is incorrect as it represents 180 liters, not 1.8 liters. Choice D (2800) is incorrect as it does not reflect the conversion of 1800 ml to liters.

3. In the emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client involved in a motor vehicle crash. Findings include absent breath sounds in the left lower lobe with dyspnea, blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, heart rate 124/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.6 C (101.4 F), and SaO2 92% on room air. What action should the nurse take first?

A. Obtain a chest X-ray.
B. Prepare for chest tube insertion.
C. Administer oxygen via high-flow mask.
D. Initiate IV access.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of respiratory distress, including absent breath sounds, dyspnea, and a low SaO2 level. The priority action should be to improve oxygenation by administering oxygen via a high-flow mask. This intervention aims to increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs, helping to address the hypoxemia. Once oxygenation is optimized, further interventions, such as obtaining a chest X-ray, preparing for chest tube insertion, or initiating IV access, can be considered based on the client's condition and healthcare provider's orders.

4. Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?

A. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen
B. Urinary catheterization
C. Nasogastric tube insertion
D. Colostomy irrigation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Surgical asepsis, which involves maintaining a sterile field and preventing contamination in a surgical setting, is required for urinary catheterization as it involves entering a sterile body cavity. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen, nasogastric tube insertion, and colostomy irrigation do not always require surgical asepsis as they involve different levels of sterility and infection control measures.

5. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing:

A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Anorexia
D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness in a patient after starting furosemide therapy are indicative of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can manifest with muscle weakness, cramps, and fatigue due to alterations in neuromuscular function and decreased ATP production.