ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A client with fibromyalgia requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Pregabalin
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Colchicine
- D. Codeine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pregabalin is commonly used to manage pain associated with fibromyalgia. It works by reducing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, not pain management. Colchicine is primarily used for gout treatment, and codeine, while an analgesic, is not typically the first-line choice for fibromyalgia pain due to its potential for side effects and misuse.
2. A client is being instructed on how to perform pursed-lip breathing. Which of the following should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Take quick breaths upon inhalation.
- B. Place your hand over your stomach.
- C. Take a deep breath in through your nose.
- D. Puff your cheeks upon exhalation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a breathing technique that involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling gently through pursed lips. This technique helps improve breathing efficiency and can be beneficial for individuals with respiratory conditions. Instructing the client to take a deep breath in through the nose is essential for proper execution of pursed-lip breathing, making choice C the correct answer.
3. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
4. A 38-year-old patient’s vital signs at 8 a.m. are axillary temperature 99.6°F (37.6°C); pulse rate 88; respiratory rate 30. Which findings should be reported?
- A. Respiratory rate only
- B. Temperature only
- C. Pulse rate and temperature
- D. Temperature and respiratory rate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Both an elevated temperature and an increased respiratory rate are abnormal vital signs that could indicate an underlying health issue. Reporting both of these findings is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention if needed.
5. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client following the insertion of a chest tube and drainage system. Which of the following should NOT be included in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to cough every 2 hours.
- B. Check for continuous bubbling in the suction chamber.
- C. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
- D. Obtain a chest x-ray
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Stripping the drainage tubing is an outdated practice and can cause complications. Encouraging the client to cough helps with lung expansion, checking for continuous bubbling ensures proper functioning of the chest tube system, and obtaining a chest x-ray helps to assess the position of the chest tube and re-expansion of the lung. Therefore, stripping the drainage tubing every 4 hours should not be included in the plan of care.
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