Nursing Elites

1. Which state of arousal is considered the most fleeting?

• A. Regular sleep
• B. REM sleep
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Quiet alertness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quiet alertness is indeed the most fleeting state of arousal. This state is characterized by a newborn infant being awake, calm, and attentive, but it is short-lived and transitions quickly to other states of arousal. Regular sleep, REM sleep, and drowsiness are not considered as brief and transitional as quiet alertness in newborn infants.

2. Chinara is Rh-negative and Savon, her first child, is Rh-positive. Chinara's doctor will probably __________.

• A. give Savon a vaccine to prevent heart damage and intellectual disabilities
• B. advise Chinara not to have another child due to Rh incompatibility
• C. give Chinara a vaccine to prevent the buildup of antibodies to the foreign Rh protein
• D. do nothing because firstborn children are not affected by Rh incompatibility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chinara is Rh-negative and Savon, her first child, is Rh-positive. This presents a risk of Rh incompatibility in future pregnancies. To prevent the buildup of antibodies to the foreign Rh protein and protect future pregnancies, Chinara's doctor will likely give her a vaccine known as RhoGAM to prevent her immune system from reacting to Rh-positive blood cells. This vaccine helps to minimize the risks of complications in subsequent pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because the vaccine is given to the mother, not the child. Choice B is incorrect as advising against having more children is not a typical response when preventive measures are available. Choice D is incorrect because all subsequent pregnancies are at risk of Rh incompatibility, not just the firstborn child.

3. Nine-month-old Avery can retrieve his ball when his mother hides it under a blanket. Avery has begun to master __________.

• A. the tertiary circular reaction
• B. reflexive schemes
• C. object permanence
• D. deferred imitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Avery demonstrating the ability to retrieve his ball hidden under a blanket indicates that he has started to understand object permanence. Object permanence is the concept that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight. This milestone typically occurs around 8-12 months of age. The other choices are incorrect. Option A, the tertiary circular reaction, is related to Piaget's theory of sensorimotor development but does not specifically address object permanence. Reflexive schemes (Option B) refer to simple, reflex-like behaviors and are not directly linked to object permanence. Deferred imitation (Option D) involves the ability to imitate actions observed at an earlier time, which is a different developmental milestone compared to object permanence.

4. In the United States, the second leading cause of neonatal mortality is __________, which is largely preventable.

• A. malnutrition
• B. physical abnormality
• C. low birth weight
• D. sudden infant death syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The second leading cause of neonatal mortality in the United States is low birth weight, which is largely preventable through proper prenatal care, nutrition, and health interventions. Low birth weight infants are at higher risk for various health complications and mortality, making it an important issue to address in maternal and child health programs. Malnutrition (choice A) can contribute to low birth weight but is not the direct cause of neonatal mortality. Physical abnormality (choice B) can be a factor in some cases but is not the second leading cause overall. Sudden infant death syndrome (choice D) refers to unexplained deaths of seemingly healthy babies and is not related to low birth weight as a leading cause of neonatal mortality.

5. What is a characteristic of structured interviews?

• A. Do not yield the same depth of information as a clinical interview
• B. Are flexible because questions are phrased differently for each participant
• C. Bring together a wide range of information on one person
• D. Tell researchers little about the reasoning behind participants' responses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Structured interviews do not yield the same depth of information as a clinical interview because they involve a set of standardized questions that are asked in the same way to all participants. This lack of flexibility may limit the depth and richness of the responses obtained compared to a more open-ended clinical interview. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because structured interviews are not flexible in question phrasing, do not necessarily bring together a wide range of information on one person, and can provide insights into participants' reasoning behind responses depending on the design of the structured questions.

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