the medication protocol the nurse should use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client would least likely include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam

1. Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.

2. When explaining one of the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse mention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while obstructive sleep apnea syndrome involves the obstruction of the upper airway during sleep. One of the main differences is that people with narcolepsy often experience refreshing naps, feeling rested and replenished upon waking, which is not the case for obstructive sleep apnea syndrome. This distinction is important for healthcare providers to understand as it helps differentiate between these two sleep disorders.

3. What information should the nurse include in patient education for a patient prescribed fluoxetine for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients prescribed fluoxetine should be educated that the medication may take several weeks to achieve its full therapeutic effect. This information helps manage patient expectations and ensures they do not discontinue the medication prematurely due to lack of immediate results. Taking the medication in the morning to avoid insomnia is not a specific requirement for fluoxetine. Consuming alcohol while taking fluoxetine is not safe and can lead to adverse effects. It is crucial to report any side effects to the healthcare provider promptly for timely management and adjustment of the treatment plan.

4. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

5. While auditing care plans for clients with eating disorders, the nurse realizes that a nursing diagnosis appropriate for a client with anorexia nervosa as well as for a client with bulimia nervosa is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chronic low self-esteem is a nursing diagnosis that can be applicable to clients with both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. These eating disorders are often associated with distorted body image, feelings of inadequacy, and low self-esteem. Clients with these conditions may engage in harmful behaviors related to their self-image, making chronic low self-esteem a relevant nursing diagnosis for them.

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