the medication protocol the nurse should use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client would least likely include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam

1. Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.

2. A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The client's mother states, 'That's not something to be stressed about!' Which is the most appropriate nursing response?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Stress can manifest as physical or psychological. A perceived threat to self-esteem can be as stressful as a physiological change. Choice A is dismissive of the teenager's concerns and does not address the issue professionally. Choice B is incorrect as stress can result from various factors, not just loss. Choice C oversimplifies the relationship between physical condition and psychological well-being, neglecting the impact of mental stressors on overall health.

3. A healthcare professional is providing education to the family of a client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to participate in daily activities is crucial in managing schizophrenia. Engaging in activities can enhance the quality of life and reduce symptoms by providing structure, routine, and social interaction, which are beneficial for individuals with schizophrenia. Choices B, C, and D are not the most appropriate instructions for managing schizophrenia. While expressing feelings can be helpful, daily activities have a more significant impact on managing the condition. Avoiding caffeine and spending time alone are not directly related to managing schizophrenia and may not be the most beneficial strategies.

4. In assessing a client with major depressive disorder, which of the following findings shouldn't the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In major depressive disorder, common findings include anhedonia (loss of interest or pleasure), hypersomnia (excessive sleepiness), fatigue, and feelings of worthlessness. Flight of ideas, characterized by racing thoughts and rapid speech, is typically associated with bipolar disorder during manic episodes, not major depressive disorder.

5. A client is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings of anxiety is an appropriate intervention for severe anxiety. Verbalizing emotions can help the client process their feelings and reduce the intensity of anxiety. It promotes emotional expression and may lead to a better understanding of the underlying causes of anxiety, paving the way for effective coping strategies. Choices A, C, and D are not the most appropriate interventions for severe anxiety. While group therapy can be beneficial, it may not be suitable for someone experiencing severe anxiety. Limiting caffeine intake and avoiding stressful situations are helpful strategies but may not address the root of the severe anxiety or provide immediate relief.

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A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
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