ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam
1. Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?
- A. Lithium
- B. Alprazolam
- C. Diphenhydramine
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.
2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel less anxious.
- B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. It may take several weeks for this medication to take full effect.
- D. This medication can cause dependency.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it indicates a misunderstanding about buspirone. Buspirone should not be abruptly stopped, and patients should follow the prescribed regimen consistently. Stopping the medication without proper guidance can lead to adverse effects or a return of anxiety symptoms. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate an understanding of important aspects of buspirone therapy: avoiding alcohol due to interactions, being patient for the medication to reach full effectiveness, and being aware of the potential for dependency with this medication.
3. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Tardive dyskinesia
- B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- C. Mindfulness meditation
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mindfulness meditation.' Side effects of antipsychotic medications include tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Mindfulness meditation is not a side effect of antipsychotic medications. Choices A, B, and D are all potential side effects of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medication. Hyperglycemia can occur as a side effect of some antipsychotic medications, particularly the second-generation ones.
4. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing borderline personality disorder?
- A. Dialectical behavior therapy
- B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- C. Psychoanalysis
- D. Supportive therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing borderline personality disorder. DBT is a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that focuses on providing skills to cope with intense emotions, improve relationships, and regulate behavior. It has been extensively studied and shown to be effective in reducing self-harm, suicidal behaviors, and improving overall functioning in individuals with borderline personality disorder. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Choice B) is a common and effective treatment for many mental health conditions but is not as specifically tailored to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder as DBT. Psychoanalysis (Choice C) is a more intensive and long-term therapy that focuses on exploring unconscious patterns and early life experiences, which may not be as practical or effective for the impulsive and emotional dysregulation seen in borderline personality disorder. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support but lacks the structured skills training and strategies that are essential in managing borderline personality disorder.
5. When assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Amenorrhea
- B. Lanugo
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, expected findings include amenorrhea, lanugo, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; instead, hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, is more common. Hypokalemia can result from decreased intake of potassium-rich foods or excessive purging behaviors commonly seen in individuals with anorexia nervosa.
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