Nursing Elites

1. Devastated by a divorce from an abusive husband, a wife completes grief counseling. Which statement by the wife should indicate to a nurse that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief?

• A. If only we could have tried again, things might have worked out.
• B. I am so mad that the children and I had to put up with him as long as we did.
• C. Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the experience.
• D. I still don't have any appetite and continue to lose weight.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief based on the statement 'Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the experience.' In this statement, the client is acknowledging the difficulty of the relationship but also expressing personal growth and learning from the experience, indicating acceptance. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect the acceptance stage of grief. Choice A shows a sense of regret and a wish for things to have turned out differently. Choice B demonstrates lingering anger towards the ex-husband. Choice D suggests ongoing physical manifestations of grief like loss of appetite and weight loss, which are more indicative of earlier stages of grief.

2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is being discharged. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Practice relaxation techniques daily
• B. Avoid caffeine and alcohol
• C. Engage in regular physical activity
• D. Use benzodiazepines as the first line of treatment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When discharging a client with GAD, it is important to provide instructions that promote holistic well-being and support without exacerbating the condition. Practicing relaxation techniques daily, avoiding caffeine and alcohol, and engaging in regular physical activity can help manage anxiety symptoms effectively. These strategies focus on self-care and healthy lifestyle choices. Seeking support from friends and family also plays a crucial role in maintaining mental health. However, using benzodiazepines as the first line of treatment is not recommended due to their potential for dependence and other associated risks. Non-pharmacological interventions and therapy are usually preferred as initial approaches in managing GAD. Therefore, the option 'D: Use benzodiazepines as the first line of treatment' is incorrect and should not be included in the discharge teaching for a client with GAD.

3. During a manic episode, which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage group activities to increase socialization.
• B. Provide a structured environment with limited stimuli.
• C. Allow the patient to engage in physical activities freely.
• D. Give the patient detailed and complex tasks to complete.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals may experience heightened energy levels and reduced impulse control. Providing a structured environment with limited stimuli is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach helps reduce excessive stimulation and potential triggers for further escalation of manic behavior. It promotes a calming and controlled setting, assisting in managing symptoms and promoting the patient's well-being. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may lead to overstimulation, allowing the patient to engage in physical activities freely (Choice C) could be risky due to impulsivity, and giving detailed tasks (Choice D) might overwhelm the individual.

4. Which medication is typically prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Sertraline
• C. Methylphenidate
• D. Clozapine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant often prescribed to manage symptoms of ADHD. It works by increasing the activity of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, helping to improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol, Sertraline, and Clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used in conditions like schizophrenia, Sertraline is an antidepressant primarily for mood disorders, and Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.

5. A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used primarily to:

• A. Reduce anxiety symptoms
• B. Improve mood
• C. Increase energy levels
• D. Enhance social interactions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce anxiety symptoms. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, is primarily used to reduce physical symptoms of anxiety, such as rapid heartbeat and trembling, in patients with social anxiety disorder. It does not directly affect mood, energy levels, or social interactions. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not target mood improvement. Choice C is incorrect because propranolol does not aim to increase energy levels. Choice D is incorrect because propranolol does not enhance social interactions; its primary role is in reducing physical symptoms of anxiety.

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