Nursing Elites

1. Devastated by a divorce from an abusive husband, a wife completes grief counseling. Which statement by the wife should indicate to a nurse that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief?

• A. If only we could have tried again, things might have worked out.
• B. I am so mad that the children and I had to put up with him as long as we did.
• C. Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the experience.
• D. I still don't have any appetite and continue to lose weight.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief based on the statement 'Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the experience.' In this statement, the client is acknowledging the difficulty of the relationship but also expressing personal growth and learning from the experience, indicating acceptance. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect the acceptance stage of grief. Choice A shows a sense of regret and a wish for things to have turned out differently. Choice B demonstrates lingering anger towards the ex-husband. Choice D suggests ongoing physical manifestations of grief like loss of appetite and weight loss, which are more indicative of earlier stages of grief.

2. When assessing a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which symptom would a nurse most likely observe?

• A. Flashbacks
• B. Excessive worry
• C. Hallucinations
• D. Compulsive behaviors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive worry is a primary characteristic of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Patients with GAD experience persistent and excessive worry about various aspects of their lives, often anticipating disaster or catastrophic outcomes. This worry is difficult to control and can be accompanied by physical symptoms like restlessness, fatigue, irritability, muscle tension, and difficulty concentrating. Flashbacks are more commonly associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hallucinations are more typical of psychotic disorders, and compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Therefore, when assessing a patient with GAD, a nurse would most likely observe excessive worry.

3. Which of the following interventions is inappropriate for a client experiencing a panic attack?

• A. Provide a well-lit environment.
• B. Encourage deep breathing.
• C. Move the client to a quiet environment.
• D. Administer prescribed antianxiety medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a panic attack, a well-lit environment might exacerbate the client's symptoms due to sensory overload. Therefore, it is inappropriate to provide a well-lit environment during a panic attack. Encouraging deep breathing, moving the client to a quiet environment, and administering prescribed antianxiety medication are appropriate interventions for managing a panic attack. These actions help create a calming atmosphere and address the physiological symptoms associated with panic attacks.

4. What should the nurse include in patient education for a patient starting on bupropion for major depressive disorder?

• A. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• C. It may cause significant weight gain.
• D. It is used as a first-line treatment for anxiety.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients prescribed bupropion should be educated to avoid consuming alcohol while on this medication to reduce the risk of seizures. Bupropion lowers the seizure threshold, and alcohol can further increase this risk. It is important for patients to understand the potential consequences of combining bupropion with alcohol to ensure their safety and treatment effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking bupropion in the morning does not prevent insomnia; it is not associated with significant weight gain; and it is not a first-line treatment for anxiety.

5. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

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