the first sign of puberty in boys is
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Nursing Elites

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Nursing Care of Children ATI

1. What is the first sign of puberty in boys?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first sign of puberty in boys is typically the enlargement of the testes. This is due to the increase in production of testosterone, which leads to physical changes such as growth of the testes. Choice B, decreased levels of testosterone, is incorrect as puberty is marked by an increase in testosterone levels. Choice C, voice deepening, and choice D, pubic hair growth, usually occur later in the puberty process compared to testicular enlargement, making them incorrect answers.

2. A child diagnosed with aplastic anemia is admitted to the hospital. The parents ask the nurse what aplastic anemia is. Which response by the nurse is accurate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Aplastic anemia is a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, leading to pancytopenia. This can result in fatigue, infections, and bleeding tendencies. It is not characterized by abnormal red blood cell shapes, but rather by a reduction in the production of blood cells. Therefore, the accurate response is that aplastic anemia is caused by the bone marrow producing inadequate cells. Choices A and B are incorrect as aplastic anemia does not cause a proliferation of white blood cells or involve abnormally shaped red blood cells. Choice D is incorrect as aplastic anemia is not typically a disorder that occurs after a viral illness.

3. What is the narrowing of the preputial opening of the foreskin called?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phimosis is the condition where the foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans penis due to a narrowing of the preputial opening. Chordee, epispadias, and hypospadias are different conditions involving the penis's structure.

4. What is a common cause of acquired aplastic anemia in children?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Acquired aplastic anemia in children is often caused by exposure to certain drugs, such as chloramphenicol or antiepileptics, which can lead to bone marrow failure and a decrease in all types of blood cells. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because aplastic anemia is not commonly caused by deficient diet, congenital defects, or injury in children.

5. The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old African American child whose height and weight are at the 20th percentile on the growth chart. What should the nurse recognize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The NCHS growth charts serve as reference guides for all racial or ethnic groups, including African American children. The 20th percentile for height and weight does not indicate nutritional failure but provides a reference point for ongoing assessment. Choice A is incorrect because being at the 20th percentile does not automatically imply the need for nutritional intervention. Choice C is incorrect as there is no correction factor specifically used for nonwhite ethnic groups in this context. Choice D is incorrect as a single measurement at the 20th percentile can provide valuable information for assessment.

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