Nursing Elites

1. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

2. The nurse determines a need for additional instruction when the patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes says which of the following?

• A. �I can have an occasional alcoholic drink if I include it in my meal plan.�
• B. �I will need a bedtime snack because I take an evening dose of NPH insulin.�
• C. �I can choose any foods, as long as I use enough insulin to cover the calories.�
• D. �I will eat something at meal times to prevent hypoglycemia, even if I am not hungry.�

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

3. Which theory views motivation as learning?

• A. Reinforcement
• B. Process
• C. Operant
• D. Conditioning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Reinforcement. Reinforcement theory views motivation as learning through the association of behaviors with consequences. Choice B, Process, is too vague and does not specifically relate motivation to learning. Choice C, Operant, is a type of conditioning that focuses on voluntary behavior and its consequences, not motivation as learning. Choice D, Conditioning, is a general term that does not directly connect motivation with learning.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following findings indicates that the catheter requires irrigation?

• A. Urine is positive for ketones
• B. Urine has an unusual odor
• C. Urine specific gravity is 1.035 (normal range: 1.010 to 1.025)
• D. Bladder scan shows 525 mL of urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ketones in the urine may indicate infection or blockage in the urinary catheter, necessitating irrigation to ensure proper drainage. Choice B, an unusual odor in the urine, may suggest infection but does not directly indicate the need for catheter irrigation. Choice C, a high urine specific gravity, is indicative of concentrated urine but does not specifically point to the need for catheter irrigation. Choice D, a bladder scan showing 525 mL of urine, indicates urine retention, which may require catheterization or further assessment but not necessarily irrigation.

5. When considering virtue ethics, which of the following is true?

• A. Virtue ethics attributes behaviors to moral rules.
• B. Virtue ethics attributes behaviors to knowledge of consequences.
• C. Virtue ethics focuses on moral character, rather than rules for behavior.
• D. Virtue ethics is a formal statement of rules for behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virtue ethics focuses on moral character, rather than rules for behavior. Virtue ethics is a branch of ethical theory that emphasizes an individual's character and virtues rather than focusing on specific rules or consequences. Choice A is incorrect as virtue ethics does not attribute behaviors to moral rules; instead, it emphasizes developing virtuous character traits. Choice B is incorrect because virtue ethics does not attribute behaviors to knowledge of consequences; it looks at the moral character of the individual. Choice D is incorrect as virtue ethics is not a formal statement of rules for behavior but rather a perspective that emphasizes the importance of developing virtuous character traits.

Similar Questions