the final stages of the conflict process are
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1. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of terminal cancer. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse that the client is ready to hear information regarding palliative care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because the client expressing a desire to know about measures available to keep comfortable indicates readiness for palliative care. Palliative care focuses on providing comfort, symptom management, and improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses such as terminal cancer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A indicates a desire for chemotherapy to cure the cancer, which does not align with palliative care goals. Choice B expresses a wish to end the situation quickly, which may not be in line with palliative care that focuses on comfort and quality of life. Choice D shows optimism about a full recovery, which may not be realistic for a client with terminal cancer who needs palliative care.

3. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for additional instruction in administering insulin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: This statement indicates a need for additional instruction because while site rotation is essential, it's important to rotate sites within the same anatomical region (such as staying within the abdomen for several injections before moving to a different region). Rotating too frequently between different regions can cause inconsistent insulin absorption, which can affect blood sugar control.

4. A few weeks after an 82-year-old with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes has been placed on metformin (Glucophage) therapy and taught about appropriate diet and exercise, the home health nurse makes a visit. Which finding by the nurse is most important to discuss with the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important finding to discuss with the healthcare provider is the decreased glomerular filtration rate. In patients on metformin therapy, monitoring kidney function is crucial as metformin is primarily excreted through the kidneys. A decreased glomerular filtration rate can lead to metformin accumulation in the body, increasing the risk of lactic acidosis, a serious adverse effect. The hemoglobin A1C level being 7.9% indicates poor diabetes control but can be addressed through medication adjustments and lifestyle modifications. The patient needing an eye exam after 18 months is important but not as urgent as discussing the decreased glomerular filtration rate. Patient questions about the prescribed diet can be addressed during the visit without the need for immediate healthcare provider intervention.

5. A diabetic patient who has reported burning foot pain at night receives a new prescription. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about amitriptyline (Elavil)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, which helps in reducing the transmission of pain impulses to the brain. Choice A is incorrect because amitriptyline primarily works on pain transmission rather than directly on depression. Choice C is inaccurate as amitriptyline's mechanism of action is not related to correcting blood vessel changes. Choice D is partially true as amitriptyline can improve sleep, but the primary mechanism related to pain relief is by preventing pain impulses from reaching the brain.

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