the final stages of the conflict process are
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1. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

2. A technique used to eliminate negative behavior by ignoring the behavior is known as __________.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Extinction.' Extinction is a behavioral psychology technique where undesirable behavior is ignored, leading to its eventual decrease or elimination. This process involves withholding reinforcement that was previously maintaining the behavior. Choice A, 'Punishment,' involves applying negative consequences to reduce unwanted behavior, which is different from extinction. Choice C, 'Shaping,' is a method of gradually molding or reinforcing behaviors to reach a desired behavior, not ignoring negative behavior. Choice D, 'Equity,' refers to fairness and equal treatment, which is unrelated to eliminating negative behavior through ignoring it.

3. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering vaccinations is indeed an example of a primary prevention strategy. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it occurs by targeting the entire population or specific high-risk groups. Vaccinations help prevent the initial development of a disease by enhancing immunity against specific pathogens. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of primary prevention strategies. Performing a surgical procedure (Choice B) is a treatment intervention, not a preventive measure. Teaching healthy lifestyle choices (Choice C) falls under health promotion and education, which is more aligned with secondary prevention. Prescribing medication (Choice D) is typically associated with treatment rather than preventing the initial onset of a disease.

4. As a new graduate employed in a high-volume maternity unit that uses differentiated practice as its staffing model, what can the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a differentiated practice model, the scope of nursing practice and responsibility are tailored to different levels of experience. As a new graduate with limited experience, the nurse can expect that the initial level of practice responsibility will be limited to match their skill level and knowledge. This allows for a gradual increase in responsibilities as the nurse gains more experience and expertise. Choice A is incorrect because evidence-based practice is related to clinical decision-making, not the staffing model. Choice B is incorrect as client teaching is typically a shared responsibility among the healthcare team, not solely the team leader's. Choice D is incorrect as differentiated practice models focus on skill level and competence rather than seniority when determining client assignments.

5. In which order will the nurse take these steps to prepare NPH 20 units and regular insulin 2 units using the same syringe? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E]).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct order to prepare NPH 20 units and regular insulin 2 units using the same syringe is to start by rotating the NPH vial, then injecting 20 units of air into the NPH vial. Next, inject 2 units of air into the regular insulin vial, followed by withdrawing the regular insulin. Finally, withdraw 20 units of NPH. This sequence ensures proper mixing and preparation of the insulin doses. Choices A, B, and D have incorrect sequences that may lead to incorrect dosages or inadequate mixing of the insulins.

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