Nursing Elites

1. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

2. Which level in Maslow's hierarchy is rarely met?

• A. Esteem
• B. Safety
• C. Self-actualization
• D. Belongingness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Self-actualization.' Self-actualization, the highest level in Maslow's hierarchy, involves developing one's full potential and achieving personal growth. It is considered rarely met because it requires a deep understanding of oneself, a strong sense of purpose, and the ability to pursue intrinsic goals. Esteem (choice A) focuses on respect, recognition, and self-esteem, which are more commonly achieved than self-actualization. Safety (choice B) and belongingness (choice D) are also more commonly attained as they relate to basic needs for security and social connections, which are essential for overall well-being.

3. The staff in the emergency department has presented the nurse leader with a suggestion for streamlining the triage process, cutting down on wait times. Which of the following qualities does the leader specifically need to implement the suggestion?

• A. Courage
• B. Integrity
• C. Energy
• D. Initiative

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Initiative is the correct quality needed in this situation. The staff has provided a suggestion for improvement, and the leader must take the initiative to implement it. Courage, integrity, and energy are valuable qualities as well but in this context, the most essential quality is initiative to drive the change forward and improve the triage process efficiently.

4. A 34-year-old has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. The nurse will discuss the need to schedule a dilated eye exam

• A. every 2 years
• B. as soon as possible
• C. when the patient is 39 years old
• D. within the first year after diagnosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B' - as soon as possible. Patients with type 2 diabetes should have a dilated eye exam shortly after diagnosis to check for any signs of diabetic retinopathy, a common complication of diabetes. Waiting for 2 years (choice A) may lead to missing early signs of eye damage. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific age requirement mentioned for the eye exam. Choice D is also incorrect because early detection and intervention are crucial in diabetic eye disease.

5. What is the primary goal of infection control practices in healthcare settings?

• A. To reduce the length of hospital stays
• B. To ensure patient safety and prevent infections
• C. To control the spread of infections within the healthcare setting
• D. To comply with healthcare regulations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To control the spread of infections within the healthcare setting.' The primary goal of infection control practices is to prevent the transmission and spread of infections among patients, healthcare workers, and visitors. Choice A is incorrect because while infection control practices may indirectly contribute to shorter hospital stays by preventing additional complications, reducing the length of hospital stays is not their primary goal. Choice B is incorrect as ensuring patient safety and preventing infections are important outcomes of infection control practices but not the primary goal. Choice D is incorrect because compliance with healthcare regulations is a requirement that supports the implementation of infection control practices but is not the primary goal of these practices.

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