Nursing Elites

1. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

2. A female patient is scheduled for an oral glucose tolerance test. Which information from the patient�s health history is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?

• A. The patient uses oral contraceptives.
• B. The patient runs several days a week.
• C. The patient has been pregnant three times
• D. The patient has a family history of diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

3. What are the advantages of using internal pools of nurses for staffing purposes?

• A. Familiarity with the hospital & Lower cost
• B. Centralization
• C. Staffing mix
• D. Staff satisfaction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Familiarity with the hospital & Lower cost. Internal float pools of nurses offer advantages such as being familiar with the hospital environment and staff, which can enhance communication and collaboration. Additionally, utilizing internal nurses is more cost-effective compared to hiring agency nurses, contributing to financial savings for the healthcare facility. Choice B, Centralization, is not a direct advantage of using internal pools of nurses. Choice C, Staffing mix, is a broader concept that does not specifically address the advantages of internal nurse pools. Choice D, Staff satisfaction, is important but not directly related to the specific advantages of utilizing internal nurse pools for staffing purposes.

4. What is the main purpose of a patient satisfaction survey?

• A. To improve patient outcomes
• B. To evaluate nursing performance
• C. To measure patient satisfaction
• D. To assess healthcare facilities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main purpose of a patient satisfaction survey is to measure patient satisfaction. These surveys aim to gather feedback directly from patients regarding their experiences and perceptions of the healthcare services they have received. While patient satisfaction may impact outcomes indirectly, the primary goal of the survey is not to directly improve patient outcomes, making choice A incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because patient satisfaction surveys are not primarily focused on evaluating nursing performance specifically. Choice D is also incorrect because the main focus of the survey is on the satisfaction of patients rather than assessing healthcare facilities.

5. Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs?

• A. Hours of care provided
• B. Ancillary staff
• C. Procedures to be done
• D. Types of patients

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When calculating Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.

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