Nursing Elites

1. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 50-year-old patient who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase)?

• A. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas.
• B. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas.
• C. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low.
• D. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. Glyburide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of antidiabetic medications, which work by stimulating the pancreas to produce and release more insulin. This helps to lower blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because glyburide does not decrease glucagon secretion; instead, it acts on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because taking glyburide when blood glucose is low can lead to hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific interaction between glyburide and IV contrast media that requires avoiding its use for 48 hours.

2. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of disruptive conflict. In disruptive conflict, the parties involved engage in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. The resident refusing to answer calls and the nurse retaliating with frequent calls to 'get back' at him exemplify behaviors aimed at causing disruption and conflict between them. Perceived conflict refers to each party's perception of the other's position, competitive conflict involves one side winning at the expense of the other, and felt conflict is about the feelings of opposition within the relationship, none of which fully capture the nature of the conflict displayed in this scenario.

3. As a new graduate employed in a high-volume maternity unit that uses differentiated practice as its staffing model, what can the nurse expect?

• A. Evidence-based practice guides risk management principles.
• B. Client teaching is the responsibility of the team leader.
• C. The initial level of practice responsibility will be limited.
• D. Seniority is the main determinant of client assignments.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a differentiated practice model, the scope of nursing practice and responsibility are tailored to different levels of experience. As a new graduate with limited experience, the nurse can expect that the initial level of practice responsibility will be limited to match their skill level and knowledge. This allows for a gradual increase in responsibilities as the nurse gains more experience and expertise. Choice A is incorrect because evidence-based practice is related to clinical decision-making, not the staffing model. Choice B is incorrect as client teaching is typically a shared responsibility among the healthcare team, not solely the team leader's. Choice D is incorrect as differentiated practice models focus on skill level and competence rather than seniority when determining client assignments.

4. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity?

• A. Administering immunizations
• B. Physical therapy for stroke patients
• C. Routine health screenings
• D. Health education campaigns

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, physical therapy for stroke patients. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and improve the quality of life for individuals who already have a disease or condition. Administering immunizations (choice A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Routine health screenings (choice C) are part of secondary prevention to detect diseases early. Health education campaigns (choice D) typically fall under primary prevention by educating and promoting healthy behaviors to prevent diseases.

5. What characteristics will you emphasize in a job interview that will positively influence the meeting?

• A. Patient diagnoses that are of greatest interest.
• B. Avoiding challenging patient assignments to minimize the risk of making a mistake.
• C. Number of times you inserted a nasogastric tube.
• D. Your grades on your scholarly papers in nursing school.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because emphasizing your grades on scholarly papers in nursing school during a job interview can demonstrate your motivation, interest in achieving, and potential for professional growth and success. This evidence of academic success is often seen as a predictor of how well you may perform in a professional setting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on patient diagnoses, which may not directly relate to your academic achievements. Choice B suggests avoiding challenging assignments, which does not demonstrate a willingness to learn and grow. Choice C, regarding the number of times you inserted a nasogastric tube, is too specific and does not provide a broad view of your capabilities and potential as a professional.

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