Nursing Elites

1. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer potassium supplements.
• C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
• D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is high, indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further elevate potassium levels. Therefore, the priority action is to withhold the medication to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia and notify the healthcare provider for further management. Option B is incorrect because administering potassium supplements would worsen the hyperkalemia. Option C is incorrect as continuing spironolactone can lead to a further increase in potassium levels. Option D is incorrect as increasing the dose of spironolactone would be inappropriate in the presence of elevated potassium levels.

2. Which test measures how well the lungs work by assessing the amount of air the lungs can hold and how quickly air can be exhaled?

• A. Spirometry
• B. Pulse oximetry
• C. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
• D. Chest X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Spirometry. Spirometry is a pulmonary function test that evaluates lung function by measuring the amount of air a person can exhale and how quickly, assisting in the diagnosis of conditions such as asthma and COPD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation in the blood, Arterial blood gas (ABG) evaluates blood pH, oxygen, and carbon dioxide levels, and a Chest X-ray provides an image of the lungs but does not measure lung function.

3. The nurse is giving digoxin to a client. What is the most important parameter to check before administration?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart rate. Before administering digoxin, it is crucial to check the client's heart rate because digoxin can cause bradycardia, an abnormally slow heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate is essential to prevent potential complications associated with digoxin therapy. Choices B, C, and D are less critical parameters to assess before administering digoxin. While blood pressure is also important to monitor during digoxin therapy, the most crucial parameter to check due to the medication's potential effect on heart rate is the heart rate itself.

4. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

5. Which surgical procedure involves opening or replacing a narrowed or blocked heart valve?

• A. Valve replacement
• B. Angioplasty
• C. Stent placement
• D. Coronary bypass surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Valve replacement is the correct answer because it specifically involves surgically replacing a damaged or diseased heart valve with a prosthetic valve to address narrowing or blockage, thereby improving blood flow and heart function. Angioplasty (choice B) is a procedure to widen narrowed or obstructed arteries, typically using a balloon catheter. Stent placement (choice C) involves inserting a mesh tube to support a weakened artery. Coronary bypass surgery (choice D) is a procedure to create new routes for blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked arteries.

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