Nursing Elites

1. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with diuretic use. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels, not potassium levels affected by furosemide.

2. Which heart chamber ejects blood into the systemic arterial circulation via the aorta?

• A. Right atrium
• B. Left atrium
• C. Right ventricle
• D. Left ventricle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Left ventricle. The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into the systemic circulation via the aorta. This chamber receives oxygen-rich blood from the left atrium and contracts forcefully to propel blood into the aorta, distributing it to the body. The other options, right atrium, left atrium, and right ventricle, do not directly eject blood into the systemic arterial circulation via the aorta. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body, the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs, and the right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs for oxygenation.

3. What is a condition characterized by episodes of severe, acute shortness of breath, often occurring at night?

• A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
• B. Sleep apnea
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by sudden episodes of severe shortness of breath during sleep, often waking the individual. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but does not usually present with acute shortness of breath. Choice C, Orthopnea, refers to shortness of breath that occurs when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficult or labored breathing and does not specifically describe acute episodes at night.

4. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Increased cardiac output
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.

5. What is a condition where the lung's alveoli are permanently enlarged and damaged, leading to shortness of breath?

• A. Emphysema
• B. Bronchitis
• C. Atelectasis
• D. Pulmonary fibrosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Emphysema is the correct answer. It is a chronic lung condition characterized by the permanent enlargement and damage of the alveoli, leading to shortness of breath and impaired oxygen exchange. Bronchitis is the inflammation of the bronchial tubes, not specifically related to alveolar damage. Atelectasis is the collapse of lung tissue, not enlargement. Pulmonary fibrosis involves scarring and thickening of lung tissue, different from the alveolar damage seen in emphysema.

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