ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.
2. What is a condition where the blood supply to the brain is interrupted or reduced, preventing brain tissue from getting oxygen and nutrients?
- A. Stroke
- B. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Angina
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A stroke is the correct answer. A stroke occurs when the blood supply to part of the brain is interrupted or reduced, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to the brain tissue, causing brain damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain with no lasting damage, myocardial infarction is a heart attack due to blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle, and angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart.
3. What does the PR interval measure?
- A. Time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles
- B. Measurement of ventricular depolarization
- C. Duration of ventricular repolarization
- D. Segment representing the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The PR interval measures the time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles. It is crucial in diagnosing heart rhythm disorders, as abnormalities in this interval can indicate conduction abnormalities between the atria and ventricles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, the QT interval represents the duration of ventricular repolarization, and the ST segment represents the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization.
4. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Respiratory distress
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.
5. The client has a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin. What is the nurse's instruction for how to take this medication during an episode of chest pain?
- A. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three tablets.
- B. Take one tablet every hour until the pain subsides.
- C. Take two tablets immediately if chest pain occurs.
- D. Take one tablet with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The standard instruction for sublingual nitroglycerin during an episode of chest pain is to take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three tablets. If the pain persists after taking three tablets, the client should seek emergency help. Choice B is incorrect because taking one tablet every hour is not the appropriate dosing for acute chest pain. Choice C is incorrect as taking two tablets immediately is not in line with the recommended dosing instructions. Choice D is incorrect because sublingual nitroglycerin should be placed under the tongue, not swallowed with water.
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