Nursing Elites

1. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

2. Which term refers to the ability of the heart to initiate impulses repetitively and spontaneously?

• A. Contractility
• B. Excitability
• C. Automaticity
• D. Rhythmicity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Automaticity. Automaticity is the specific term used to describe the heart's ability to generate impulses repetitively and spontaneously. Contractility (A) refers to the ability of muscle fibers to contract, not the initiation of impulses. Excitability (B) is the ability of cells to respond to stimuli but is not specific to the heart's impulse generation. Rhythmicity (D) is a related term but does not specifically describe the heart's spontaneous impulse initiation.

3. The nurse is caring for a client on heparin. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. aPTT
• B. INR
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: aPTT. When a client is on heparin therapy, monitoring the aPTT is crucial. The aPTT helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing blood clots and guides dose adjustments as needed. INR (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) is important to assess for potential bleeding disorders or thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor for heparin therapy. Hemoglobin (Choice D) is essential for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but is not the most important lab value to monitor when a client is on heparin.

4. What is a surgical procedure to remove one of the lobes of the lungs, often performed to treat lung cancer?

• A. Lobectomy
• B. Pneumonectomy
• C. Thoracotomy
• D. Tracheostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A lobectomy is the correct answer. This surgical procedure involves removing one of the lobes of the lungs, commonly done to treat lung cancer or other serious lung ailments. Choice B, pneumonectomy, involves the complete removal of a lung, not just a lobe. Choice C, thoracotomy, is a surgical incision into the chest wall and is not specific to removing a lung lobe. Choice D, tracheostomy, is the creation of an opening in the windpipe to assist with breathing and is unrelated to lung lobe removal.

5. What is a condition where the blood flow to the brain is temporarily blocked, often referred to as a mini-stroke?

• A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
• B. Stroke
• C. Aneurysm
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is the correct answer. A TIA is often referred to as a mini-stroke because it is caused by a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. This blockage resolves on its own, typically within minutes to hours, leading to temporary symptoms similar to a stroke. Option B, 'Stroke,' is incorrect because a stroke involves a more prolonged interruption of blood flow to the brain. Option C, 'Aneurysm,' is incorrect as it is a bulge in a blood vessel that can rupture and cause bleeding, not a temporary blockage of blood flow. Option D, 'Myocardial infarction,' is also incorrect as it refers to a heart attack, not a condition involving the brain's blood flow.

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