the client is on amiodarone and reports blurred vision what is the nurses best response
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

1. The client is on amiodarone and reports blurred vision. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blurred vision is a potential side effect of amiodarone. Instructing the client to report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately is the most appropriate response. Choice A is incorrect because although blurred vision can be a common side effect of amiodarone, it should not be dismissed without further evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as advising the client to stop taking the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can be dangerous and is not the first course of action. Choice D is too drastic as discontinuing the medication should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider after proper evaluation.

2. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

3. Which condition involves the enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle of the heart, leading to reduced pumping ability?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dilated cardiomyopathy. Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by the enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle of the heart, which results in a reduced ability to pump blood effectively. Choice B, Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, involves thickening of the heart muscle, not enlargement. Choice C, Restrictive cardiomyopathy, is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, not enlargement. Choice D, Pericarditis, refers to inflammation of the pericardium, the lining surrounding the heart, and does not involve enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle.

4. What type of heart disease is characterized by the heart muscle becoming enlarged and weakened, reducing its ability to pump blood effectively?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dilated cardiomyopathy. Dilated cardiomyopathy is a type of heart disease where the heart muscle becomes enlarged and weakened, reducing its ability to pump blood effectively, which can lead to heart failure. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (B) is characterized by abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, not enlargement. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (C) involves the heart muscle becoming stiff and less flexible, limiting its ability to fill with blood properly. Myocarditis (D) is inflammation of the heart muscle, which can affect the heart's function but is different from dilated cardiomyopathy.

5. The client is prescribed warfarin. What should the client be taught about this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and vitamin K can counteract its effects. Therefore, it is important for clients taking warfarin to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin should be taken consistently as prescribed, regardless of food intake. Choice C is incorrect because while consistency in timing is important, it is not specific to the effectiveness of warfarin. Choice D is incorrect because clients should never increase the dose of warfarin on their own, especially to make up for a missed dose, as it can lead to serious bleeding risks.

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