the client is on amiodarone and reports blurred vision what is the nurses best response
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Nursing Elites

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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

1. The client is on amiodarone and reports blurred vision. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blurred vision is a potential side effect of amiodarone. Instructing the client to report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately is the most appropriate response. Choice A is incorrect because although blurred vision can be a common side effect of amiodarone, it should not be dismissed without further evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as advising the client to stop taking the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can be dangerous and is not the first course of action. Choice D is too drastic as discontinuing the medication should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider after proper evaluation.

2. The client is being taught about the use of warfarin. What is the most important dietary instruction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is a medication that works by decreasing the activity of vitamin K in the body to prevent blood clotting. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K like green leafy vegetables can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing the intake of vitamin K-rich foods would counteract the effects of warfarin. Avoiding foods high in protein or increasing the intake of foods high in calcium are not specifically related to the use of warfarin.

3. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to a client with a heart rate of 58 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 58 bpm is considered low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse's priority action should be to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment. Choice A is incorrect because administering the beta blocker without considering the low heart rate can worsen the condition. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the dose of the beta blocker can lead to further slowing of the heart rate, which is not safe in this situation. Choice D is not the priority action; holding the medication and seeking guidance from the healthcare provider is more crucial.

4. Which of the following is a chronic respiratory disease characterized by the irreversible obstruction of airflow?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD is a chronic respiratory disease where the airflow in the lungs becomes obstructed, making it difficult to breathe. Choice B, Asthma, is a different chronic respiratory condition characterized by reversible airflow obstruction and airway hyperresponsiveness. Choice C, Pulmonary edema, is a condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to difficulty in breathing but not irreversible airflow obstruction. Choice D, Bronchiectasis, is a condition characterized by abnormal widening of the bronchial tubes, leading to recurrent respiratory infections, but it is not specifically defined by irreversible airflow obstruction.

5. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.

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