the client is on amiodarone and reports blurred vision what is the nurses best response
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

1. The client is on amiodarone and reports blurred vision. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blurred vision is a potential side effect of amiodarone. Instructing the client to report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately is the most appropriate response. Choice A is incorrect because although blurred vision can be a common side effect of amiodarone, it should not be dismissed without further evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as advising the client to stop taking the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can be dangerous and is not the first course of action. Choice D is too drastic as discontinuing the medication should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider after proper evaluation.

2. What condition involves the heart's electrical system malfunctioning, causing very fast heartbeats originating from the ventricles?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ventricular tachycardia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the heart's electrical system malfunctioning, leading to very fast heartbeats originating from the ventricles. Ventricular tachycardia can be life-threatening as it may progress to ventricular fibrillation, causing cardiac arrest. Atrial fibrillation (choice B) involves rapid, irregular beating of the atria, not the ventricles. Supraventricular tachycardia (choice C) originates above the ventricles and does not involve ventricular malfunction. Bradycardia (choice D) is the opposite of tachycardia, characterized by an abnormally slow heart rate.

3. The nurse is caring for a client on enalapril (Vasotec). What is the most important side effect to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and cough is a common side effect associated with this class of medication. Monitoring for cough is crucial as it can indicate the development of a potentially serious condition known as angioedema. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not the most important side effect to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also potential side effects of enalapril; however, cough takes precedence due to its association with angioedema, a severe adverse reaction.

4. The client on warfarin has an INR of 3.8. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.8 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K can help reverse the effects of warfarin. Holding the next dose of warfarin would be appropriate if the INR was too high, but not as the first-line action. Increasing the dose of warfarin would worsen the situation by further increasing the INR. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to address the elevated INR is necessary.

5. Which type of heart valve disease occurs when the mitral valve does not close properly, allowing blood to flow backward into the left atrium?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mitral regurgitation is the correct answer. It occurs when the mitral valve does not close properly, allowing blood to flow backward into the left atrium. This condition can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and if left untreated, it can progress to heart failure. Aortic stenosis (choice B) is a different heart valve condition characterized by narrowing of the aortic valve, restricting blood flow from the heart. Tricuspid regurgitation (choice C) involves the tricuspid valve not closing properly, leading to blood flowing back into the right atrium. Pulmonary hypertension (choice D) is a condition characterized by high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs.

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