the client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 28 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. The client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of digoxin would further raise the risk of toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as continuing the current dose could exacerbate the toxicity risk. Choice D is incorrect because administering potassium supplements alone is not sufficient to address the potential digoxin toxicity; the first step should be to hold the digoxin and seek further guidance.

2. The client on amiodarone develops pulmonary fibrosis. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client on amiodarone develops pulmonary fibrosis, a serious side effect, the immediate action the nurse should take is to notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial because pulmonary fibrosis can lead to severe respiratory compromise and requires prompt evaluation and management by the healthcare provider. Continuing the medication (choice B) can worsen the condition, and delaying action by reducing the dose and monitoring respiratory status (choice D) may not be appropriate given the seriousness of pulmonary fibrosis. Discontinuing the medication and starting oxygen therapy (choice C) may be necessary, but the priority is to notify the healthcare provider first for further assessment and guidance.

3. This is a type of therapy that involves removing fluid from the lungs, typically through the use of diuretics.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diuretic therapy. Diuretic therapy involves the use of medications that help remove excess fluid from the body, often used to treat conditions like pulmonary edema. Choice B, Oxygen therapy, is used to provide oxygen to patients with breathing difficulties but does not involve removing fluid from the lungs. Choice C, Inhaler therapy, is used to deliver medication directly to the lungs to help with respiratory conditions but does not focus on removing fluid. Choice D, Antihistamine therapy, is used to treat allergies by blocking histamine but is not related to removing fluid from the lungs.

4. Which chronic condition is characterized by abnormally thickened heart muscle, making it harder for the heart to pump blood efficiently?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. In this condition, the heart muscle becomes abnormally thickened, leading to difficulties in pumping blood efficiently. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves the enlargement of the heart chambers, not thickening of the heart muscle. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice C) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, impairing its ability to fill properly. Ventricular hypertrophy (choice D) refers to the thickening of the heart's ventricle walls, which can result from various conditions, not solely hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

5. Which structure serves as the normal pacemaker of the heart?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the SA node. The sinoatrial (SA) node is known as the natural pacemaker of the heart as it generates electrical impulses initiating each heartbeat. The SA node is located in the right atrium and sets the rhythm and rate of the heartbeat. The AV node (choice B) is responsible for delaying the electrical impulse to allow the atria to contract before the ventricles. Purkinje fibers (choice C) are specialized cardiac fibers responsible for the rapid conduction of impulses to the myocardial cells, and the atria (choice D) are the upper chambers of the heart involved in receiving blood from the veins.

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