Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Increase the dose of digoxin.
• C. Continue the current dose of digoxin.
• D. Administer potassium supplements.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of digoxin would further raise the risk of toxicity. Choice C is incorrect as continuing the current dose could exacerbate the toxicity risk. Choice D is incorrect because administering potassium supplements alone is not sufficient to address the potential digoxin toxicity; the first step should be to hold the digoxin and seek further guidance.

2. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

3. This heart condition is characterized by decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which can lead to organ failure.

• A. Cardiogenic shock
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Endocarditis
• D. Pericarditis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is a severe condition characterized by the heart's inability to pump enough blood, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which can result in organ failure. Choice B, Myocardial infarction, specifically refers to a blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle. Choices C and D, Endocarditis and Pericarditis, do not directly involve decreased cardiac output leading to organ failure, making them incorrect in the context of the symptoms described in the question.

4. What is the narrowing of the arteries due to the buildup of plaque, which can lead to heart attacks and strokes?

• A. Coronary artery disease
• B. Peripheral artery disease
• C. Aortic stenosis
• D. Mitral valve prolapse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Coronary artery disease is the correct answer. It is the narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries due to plaque buildup, which can lead to heart attacks and other cardiovascular issues. Choice B, Peripheral artery disease, involves the narrowing of arteries in the limbs, not specifically the coronary arteries. Choice C, Aortic stenosis, refers to the narrowing of the aortic valve opening, not the arteries. Choice D, Mitral valve prolapse, is a condition where the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle doesn't close properly, unrelated to arterial narrowing.

5. What is a condition where the heart beats too slowly, reducing the amount of blood pumped to the body?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Atrial fibrillation
• D. Ventricular fibrillation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by a slow heart rate, which reduces the amount of blood pumped to the body. This can lead to symptoms like fatigue and dizziness. Choice B, Tachycardia, is the opposite condition where the heart beats too fast. Choices C and D, Atrial fibrillation and Ventricular fibrillation, refer to irregular and potentially life-threatening rapid heart rhythms involving the atria and ventricles respectively, not a slow heart rate.

Similar Questions