the client has been diagnosed with hemorrhoids which statement from the client indicates that further teaching is needed
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. The client has been diagnosed with hemorrhoids. Which statement from the client indicates that further teaching is needed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates the need for further teaching because regular use of laxatives can lead to dependence and is not recommended for hemorrhoids. Increased fiber intake and fluid consumption (Choice A) help prevent constipation, warm compresses and sitz baths (Choice B) provide relief, and using analgesic ointments or suppositories (Choice D) can help manage pain associated with hemorrhoids.

2. The nurse in the pediatric clinic performs a physical assessment of a 13-year-old boy. Which of the following findings by the nurse requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because a swollen and thickened spermatic cord could indicate testicular torsion, which is a surgical emergency. Testicular torsion occurs when the spermatic cord twists, cutting off the blood supply to the testicle. This condition requires immediate intervention to prevent testicular damage. Choices A, B, and C do not present findings that suggest a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention.

3. Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: E6, E7, or E8. Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by individuals at the E6, E7, or E8 pay grades in the military. These positions require a higher level of experience and leadership, which align with the ranks of E6, E7, or E8. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 are not the typical ranks that hold Clinical NCO positions.

4. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect as in Type 1 diabetes the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is incorrect as while excessive sugar intake can contribute to the development of Type 2 diabetes, it is not the primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as the pituitary gland's function is unrelated to the development of Type 2 diabetes.

5. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip before initiating Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Checking the client's INR before starting Coumadin is important but not the immediate action required. Clarifying the order with the healthcare provider is not necessary as both medications are commonly used together.

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