Nursing Elites

1. An important part of nutrition therapy for patients with cystic fibrosis is:

• A. A low-fat diet to prevent steatorrhea
• B. A low-sodium diet to normalize fluid status
• C. A high-fiber diet to normalize bowel function
• D. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion. In cystic fibrosis, pancreatic insufficiency leads to the malabsorption of nutrients, making it essential for patients to take pancreatic enzymes to aid in digestion. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide adequate nutrition for cystic fibrosis patients, a low-sodium diet is not the primary focus of nutrition therapy in cystic fibrosis, and a high-fiber diet may exacerbate gastrointestinal symptoms due to malabsorption.

2. A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client’s fluid status?

• A. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output
• B. Weighing the client daily at the same time each day
• C. Assessing the client’s vital signs every 4 hours
• D. Checking the client’s lungs for crackles during every shift

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weighing the client daily at the same time each day is the most accurate method for monitoring fluid balance. Changes in body weight can reflect fluid retention or loss. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate changes in fluid status. Assessing vital signs (Choice C) can offer some information but may not be as specific to fluid status as daily weighing. Checking the client's lungs for crackles (Choice D) is more related to assessing respiratory status rather than direct fluid monitoring.

3. During a physical assessment of a newborn, which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize reporting?

• A. Head circumference of 40 cm
• B. Chest circumference of 32 cm
• C. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp
• D. Heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A head circumference of 40 cm is abnormally large for a newborn and could indicate conditions like hydrocephalus or other abnormalities, making it a crucial finding to report. Choices B, C, and D are within normal parameters for a newborn and do not pose immediate concerns. Chest circumference of 32 cm is a normal finding. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp are common in newborns due to physiological adaptations. A heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min may be within the normal range for a newborn.

4. The client diagnosed with thalassemia, a hereditary anemia, is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. The cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. Which precaution should the nurse implement when initiating the transfusion?

• A. Start the transfusion at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes
• B. Re-crossmatch the blood until the antibodies are identified
• C. Have the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood
• D. Have the unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Starting the transfusion slowly at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes is the correct precaution to implement when the cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. This allows the nurse to monitor for any adverse reactions due to the presence of antibodies. Re-crossmatching the blood until the antibodies are identified is not practical and may delay the transfusion, potentially compromising the patient's condition. Having the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood is not the best course of action as the focus should be on ensuring a safe transfusion. Having an unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client does not address the specific precaution needed to manage a transfusion in the presence of antibodies.

5. Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?

• A. Pulmonary embolism
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Hemoptysis
• D. Deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased urine output. When vegetative lesions from the mitral valve embolize, they can block blood flow to the kidneys, leading to renal infarction. This can result in decreased urine output. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage of an artery in the lungs, not directly related to embolization from the mitral valve. Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood from the respiratory tract, which is not a direct consequence of embolization from the mitral valve. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, unrelated to embolization from the mitral valve.

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