Nursing Elites

1. Why has an ACE inhibitor been prescribed following an MI?

• A. “This medication will lower your potassium level.”
• B. “ACE inhibitors have been found to reduce mortality following MI.”
• C. “ACE inhibitors are always prescribed with a beta blocker and calcium channel blocker following an MI.”
• D. “This medication will treat your hypotension.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction (MI), ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed due to their proven benefit in reducing mortality and improving outcomes post-MI. These medications help by decreasing the workload of the heart, preventing remodeling of the heart chambers, and improving survival rates. While ACE inhibitors may have effects on potassium levels, the primary reason for their prescription post-MI is their mortality-reducing properties.

2. While providing teaching to a client with a new prescription for Enalapril, the nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following manifestations as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tremors
• B. Dry cough
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Dry cough.' Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common adverse effect. This cough should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation, as it may indicate a potential issue with the medication that needs attention to ensure the client's well-being. Tremors (Choice A), drowsiness (Choice C), and hyperactivity (Choice D) are not typically associated with Enalapril use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for this question.

3. When starting therapy with doxorubicin, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Hair loss
• B. Fatigue
• C. Sore throat
• D. Red urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report a sore throat because it can indicate an infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of doxorubicin. Doxorubicin is known to suppress the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Monitoring and reporting early signs of infection, such as a sore throat, are essential to prevent complications. Hair loss and fatigue are common side effects of doxorubicin but do not typically indicate immediate concerns for infection. Red urine is a known side effect of doxorubicin but is not a priority over potentially serious infections that can arise.

4. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
• B. Take the medication 1 hr before you plan to go to sleep.
• C. Allow at least 6 hr for sleep when taking Zolpidem.
• D. To increase the effectiveness of Zolpidem, take it with a bedtime snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Zolpidem is classified under Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is essential for the client to inform the provider if she plans to become pregnant as Zolpidem use during pregnancy may pose risks to the fetus. This precaution allows for appropriate assessment and possible adjustments to the treatment plan to ensure the safety of both the client and the developing baby. Choice B is incorrect because Zolpidem is usually taken immediately before bedtime, not 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as Zolpidem is known for its quick onset of action, and the client does not need to allocate a specific amount of time for sleep. Choice D is incorrect as taking Zolpidem with food, especially a bedtime snack, may delay its onset of action.

5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a hairy area.
• B. Change the patch every 24 hours.
• C. Avoid exposure to heat sources.
• D. Cut the patch to adjust the dosage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include when providing discharge instructions for a client with a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to a risk of overdose. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be applied to a clean, non-hairy area. Choice B is incorrect as the Fentanyl patch is usually changed every 72 hours, not every 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should never be cut to adjust the dosage.

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