Nursing Elites

1. Why has an ACE inhibitor been prescribed following an MI?

• A. “This medication will lower your potassium level.”
• B. “ACE inhibitors have been found to reduce mortality following MI.”
• C. “ACE inhibitors are always prescribed with a beta blocker and calcium channel blocker following an MI.”
• D. “This medication will treat your hypotension.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction (MI), ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed due to their proven benefit in reducing mortality and improving outcomes post-MI. These medications help by decreasing the workload of the heart, preventing remodeling of the heart chambers, and improving survival rates. While ACE inhibitors may have effects on potassium levels, the primary reason for their prescription post-MI is their mortality-reducing properties.

2. When teaching a client about a new prescription for Celecoxib, which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
• B. Decreases the risk of stroke
• C. Inhibits COX-1
• D. Increases platelet aggregation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that taking Celecoxib increases the risk of a myocardial infarction due to its suppression of vasodilation. Celecoxib belongs to the class of NSAIDs known to have cardiovascular risks, including an increased risk of heart attacks. Choice B is incorrect because Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke. Choice C is incorrect because Celecoxib selectively inhibits COX-2 rather than COX-1. Choice D is incorrect because Celecoxib does not increase platelet aggregation; in fact, it inhibits platelet aggregation.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

4. A client with cirrhosis is about to receive a dose of lactulose. The client questions the need for the medication, stating they are not constipated. The nurse should explain that lactulose is used in cirrhosis to reduce levels of which component in the bloodstream?

• A. Glucose
• B. Ammonia
• C. Potassium
• D. Bicarbonate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to clients with cirrhosis to lower blood ammonia levels, thus aiding in the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels in cirrhosis can lead to cognitive impairment and hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is B (Ammonia). Glucose (Choice A) is not the component targeted by lactulose in cirrhosis. Potassium (Choice C) and Bicarbonate (Choice D) are not directly affected by lactulose administration in cirrhosis.

5. A client is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as a sign of potential toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart conditions, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate closely is crucial to detect potential toxicity early and prevent complications. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and hypocalcemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect.

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