Nursing Elites

1. Why has an ACE inhibitor been prescribed following an MI?

• A. “This medication will lower your potassium level.”
• B. “ACE inhibitors have been found to reduce mortality following MI.”
• C. “ACE inhibitors are always prescribed with a beta blocker and calcium channel blocker following an MI.”
• D. “This medication will treat your hypotension.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction (MI), ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed due to their proven benefit in reducing mortality and improving outcomes post-MI. These medications help by decreasing the workload of the heart, preventing remodeling of the heart chambers, and improving survival rates. While ACE inhibitors may have effects on potassium levels, the primary reason for their prescription post-MI is their mortality-reducing properties.

2. A client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth. The healthcare provider should plan to monitor the client's urine for which of the following?

• A. Bilirubin
• B. Protein
• C. Potassium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring calcium levels in the urine is crucial. Excessive calcium excretion can occur in the urine of clients taking Somatropin, increasing the risk of renal calculi. Therefore, monitoring calcium levels is essential to assess for potential kidney stone formation. Bilirubin, protein, and potassium are not specifically monitored in the urine of clients taking Somatropin for growth stimulation.

3. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Fomepizole
• B. Naloxone
• C. Phytonadione
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose, and Phytonadione is vitamin K, used to reverse the effects of certain blood thinners.

4. A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hours.
• C. Take this medication daily for anxiety.
• D. This medication has a low risk for dependency.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that Buspirone has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance. This information is crucial for the client to understand the medication's safety profile and potential risks associated with long-term use.

5. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime each day.
• C. Apply the patch over an area with little or no hair.
• D. Keep the patch on for 24 hours at a time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. This practice allows for a nitrate-free interval, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Applying the patch to a different site each day (choice A) is not necessary as long as the skin is clean and rotated to avoid skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair (choice C) does not impact the effectiveness of the medication. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time (choice D) can lead to tolerance, which is why the patch should be removed daily.

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