ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?
- A. Headache
- B. Constipation
- C. Epistaxis
- D. Dysuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.
2. A client has a new prescription for Levofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge instructions?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Levofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products because calcium can interfere with the absorption of the medication. It is recommended to take Levofloxacin 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as Levofloxacin is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is not necessary information for taking Levofloxacin. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of Levofloxacin.
3. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?
- A. I am frequently constipated.
- B. I have been urinating more frequently.
- C. My skin is peeling.
- D. I have ringing in my ears.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am frequently constipated.' Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down intestinal motility, leading to constipation as a side effect. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with adverse effects of Verapamil. Increased urination is not a common side effect, skin peeling is not related to Verapamil use, and ringing in the ears is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
4. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. Breast cancer
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ketamine is known to produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, individuals with schizophrenia are at increased risk of experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms if given Ketamine, making it a contraindication for its use as an intravenous anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for Ketamine use as an intravenous anesthetic.
5. A client is starting to take amitriptyline. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Dry cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urinary retention. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, can cause relaxation of the bladder sphincter muscles, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for urinary retention is crucial as it is a common anticholinergic effect associated with this medication. Diarrhea (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline. Bradycardia (choice C) is more commonly associated with beta-blockers rather than tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline. Dry cough (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.
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