ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client in an acute mental health facility is experiencing withdrawal from Opioid use and has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Administer the clonidine on the prescribed schedule.
- B. Provide ice chips at the client's bedside.
- C. Educate the client on the effects of clonidine.
- D. Obtain baseline vital signs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This step is crucial in assessing the client's current physiological status and establishing a reference point for monitoring the effects of Clonidine. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the client are important tasks but assessing the client's vital signs takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and well-being during withdrawal management.
2. A client is prescribed Omeprazole for managing heartburn. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. This medication decreases the production of gastric acid.
- C. Take this medication 2 hours after eating.
- D. This medication can cause hyperkalemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should educate the client that Omeprazole works by reducing the production of gastric acid through inhibiting the enzyme responsible for its production. This action helps in managing heartburn and related symptoms effectively. Choice A is incorrect because Omeprazole is usually taken before eating. Choice C is incorrect as Omeprazole is typically taken before a meal. Choice D is unrelated to Omeprazole, as it is not associated with causing hyperkalemia.
3. While teaching a client starting therapy with rituximab, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fever
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to promptly address any signs of infection and ensure the client's safety during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to a serious complication requiring immediate attention.
4. A client has been on levothyroxine therapy for several months. Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic response to the medication?
- A. Decrease in level of thyroxine (T4)
- B. Increase in weight
- C. Increase in hours of sleep per night
- D. Decrease in level of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A therapeutic response to levothyroxine is indicated by a decrease in the level of TSH. This decrease signifies that the body requires less stimulation to produce thyroid hormone, reflecting a normalization of thyroid function due to the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as an increase in T4 levels, weight gain, and increased sleep hours are not indicative of a therapeutic response to levothyroxine therapy.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Nausea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nausea is a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity. Along with vomiting, visual disturbances, and confusion, it can be an early indication of an overdose. Dry mouth is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Hypoglycemia is a low blood sugar level and is not directly related to Digoxin toxicity. Tinnitus, a ringing in the ears, is not a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Healthcare providers should closely monitor clients on Digoxin for symptoms like nausea to prevent serious complications.
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