Nursing Elites

1. What is the average cardiac output?

• A. Approximately 4 to 6 L per minute
• B. Approximately 4 to 8 L per minute
• C. Approximately 5 to 8 L per minute
• D. Approximately 3 to 7 L per minute

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Approximately 4 to 8 L per minute. Cardiac output is defined as the volume of blood the heart pumps per minute, typically ranging between 4 to 8 liters. Choices A, C, and D provide ranges that are either too narrow or outside the standard average values for cardiac output, making them incorrect.

2. What is a condition where the heart is unable to relax properly between beats, reducing its ability to fill with blood?

• A. Diastolic heart failure
• B. Systolic heart failure
• C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diastolic heart failure. In diastolic heart failure, the heart is unable to relax properly between beats, leading to a reduced ability to fill with blood. This condition primarily affects the heart's filling function rather than its pumping function, which is characteristic of systolic heart failure (choice B). Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (choice C) involves the abnormal thickening of the heart muscle, while restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by the heart muscle becoming stiff and less compliant. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect in the context of a heart condition where relaxation between beats is impaired.

3. What test measures the pressure inside the arteries as the heart pumps blood?

• A. Blood pressure test
• B. Pulse oximetry
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Spirometry

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Blood pressure test. A blood pressure test is specifically designed to measure the pressure inside the arteries as the heart pumps blood. This test is crucial in providing information about cardiovascular health by determining the force of blood against the artery walls. Choice B, Pulse oximetry, measures oxygen saturation in the blood, not blood pressure. Choice C, Echocardiogram, is an ultrasound test that evaluates the structure and function of the heart, not specifically blood pressure. Choice D, Spirometry, is a test used to assess lung function, not blood pressure.

4. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

5. Which condition involves the body's immune system attacking the lungs and kidneys, causing severe respiratory and renal damage?

• A. Goodpasture syndrome
• B. Sarcoidosis
• C. Wegener's granulomatosis
• D. Interstitial lung disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Goodpasture syndrome is the correct answer. It is an autoimmune disease characterized by the immune system attacking the lungs and kidneys, leading to bleeding in the lungs and kidney failure. Sarcoidosis primarily affects the lungs and lymph nodes, not the kidneys. Wegener's granulomatosis affects the lungs, sinuses, and kidneys, but it is characterized by inflammation of blood vessels. Interstitial lung disease involves scarring of the lung tissue, not direct immune system attacks on the lungs and kidneys.

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