ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Substance abuse is often present in individuals diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Laura, a 28-year-old with a bipolar disorder diagnosis, chooses to drink alcohol instead of taking her prescribed medications. The nurse caring for this patient recognizes that:
- A. Anxiety may be present.
- B. Alcohol ingestion is a form of self-medication.
- C. The patient is lacking a sufficient number of neurotransmitters.
- D. The patient is using alcohol as a coping mechanism.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Individuals with bipolar disorder may turn to alcohol as a form of self-medication to cope with their symptoms. This behavior is often seen as an attempt to manage mood swings and alleviate distress. It is important for healthcare providers to address and manage substance abuse issues in patients with bipolar disorder to ensure proper treatment and overall well-being.
2. In treating social anxiety disorder, which medication is commonly prescribed to patients with this condition?
- A. Methylphenidate
- B. Sertraline
- C. Lithium
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to treat social anxiety disorder. SSRIs are a first-line pharmacological treatment for social anxiety disorder due to their effectiveness in reducing anxiety symptoms by increasing serotonin levels in the brain, which helps regulate mood and emotions. Methylphenidate is a stimulant primarily used in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) but not in social anxiety disorder. Lithium is typically used in bipolar disorder, while haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication more commonly used in conditions like schizophrenia. Therefore, the correct choice for treating social anxiety disorder is Sertraline (B).
3. A distraught, single, first-time mother cries and asks a nurse, 'How can I go to work if I can't afford childcare?' What is the nurse's initial action in assisting the client with the problem-solving process?
- A. Determine the risks and benefits of each alternative.
- B. Formulate goals for resolving the problem.
- C. Evaluate the outcome of the implemented solution.
- D. Assess the facts of the situation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's first step should be to assess the facts of the situation. By gathering accurate information about the client's circumstances related to childcare and work, the nurse can better understand the client's needs and concerns, which is essential before proceeding with any problem-solving process. Choice A is incorrect because assessing risks and benefits comes later in the problem-solving process. Choice B is incorrect as formulating goals should follow a thorough assessment. Choice C is incorrect since evaluating outcomes happens after implementing a solution, which is premature at this stage.
4. A patient is being educated about the difference between mental health and mental illness. Which statement by the patient reflects an accurate understanding of mental health?
- A. Mental health is the absence of any stressors.
- B. Mental health is successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment.
- C. Mental health is incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
- D. Mental health is a diagnostic category in the DSM-5.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mental health is defined as the successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment. This includes having thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age-appropriate and congruent with cultural and societal norms. Mental health is not solely the absence of stressors or incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior, nor is it a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5. Choice A is incorrect because mental health is not just the absence of stressors but the ability to adapt to them. Choice C is wrong as mental health involves congruence, not incongruence, between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Choice D is inaccurate as mental health is a broader concept than a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5.
5. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?
- A. A woman who feels unattractive constantly praises the looks of others.
- B. A man who feels insecure about his masculinity exaggerates his strength.
- C. A person who feels guilty about cheating accuses others of being unfaithful.
- D. A child who feels neglected tries to win approval from teachers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.
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