Nursing Elites

1. Sitty, a 66 y.o. patient underwent a colostomy for ruptured diverticulum. She did well during the surgery and returned to your med-surg floor in stable condition. You assess her colostomy 2 days after surgery. Which finding do you report to the doctor?

• A. Blanched stoma
• B. Edematous stoma
• C. Reddish-pink stoma
• D. Brownish-black stoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A blanched stoma 2 days after colostomy surgery should be reported to the doctor as it may indicate compromised blood flow.

2. Which of the following medications is most effective for treating the pain associated with irritable bowel disease?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Opiates
• C. Steroids
• D. Stool softeners

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is often the first line of treatment for pain associated with irritable bowel disease due to its safety profile.

3. Janice is waiting for discharge instructions after her herniorrhaphy. Which of the following instructions do you include?

• A. Eat a low-fiber diet.
• B. Resume heavy lifting in 2 weeks.
• C. Lose weight, if obese.
• D. Resume sexual activity once discomfort is gone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Advise the patient to lose weight if obese to reduce the risk of complications after herniorrhaphy.

4. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

5. A 40-year-old male client has been hospitalized with peptic ulcer disease. He is being treated with a histamine receptor antagonist (cimetidine), antacids, and diet. The nurse doing discharge planning will teach him that the action of cimetidine is to:

• A. Reduce gastric acid output
• B. Protect the ulcer surface
• C. Inhibit the production of hydrochloric acid (HCl)
• D. Inhibit vagus nerve stimulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cimetidine inhibits the production of hydrochloric acid (HCl), which helps to treat peptic ulcer disease.

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