ATI RN
ATI Gastrointestinal System Test
1. During the assessment of a client’s mouth, the nurse notes the absence of saliva. The client is also complaining of pain near the area of the ear. The client has been NPO for several days because of the insertion of an NG tube. Based on these findings, the nurse suspects that the client is developing which of the following mouth conditions?
- A. Stomatitis
- B. Oral candidiasis
- C. Parotitis
- D. Gingivitis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Parotitis. Parotitis, inflammation of the parotid glands, can occur due to the absence of saliva and dehydration, often associated with being NPO and having an NG tube. Stomatitis (choice A) is inflammation of the oral mucosa, not specifically related to absent saliva. Oral candidiasis (choice B) is a fungal infection that can occur in the mouth, not directly related to the absence of saliva. Gingivitis (choice D) is inflammation of the gums and is not typically associated with the absence of saliva and dehydration.
2. A client with viral hepatitis has no appetite, and food makes the client nauseated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?
- A. Explain that high-fat diets usually are tolerated better.
- B. Encourage intake of foods high in protein.
- C. Explain that the majority of calories need to be consumed in the evening hours.
- D. Monitor for fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: If nausea occurs and persists, the client will need to be assessed for fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Explaining to the client that the majority of calories should be eaten in the morning hours is important because nausea occurs most often in the afternoon and evening. Clients should select a diet high in calories because energy is required for healing. Protein increases the workload on the liver. Changes in bilirubin interfere with fat absorption, so low-fat diets are tolerated better.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the operating room following the creation of a colostomy. The nurse is assessing the drainage in the pouch attached to the site where the colostomy was formed and notes serosanguineous drainage. Which nursing action is most appropriate based on this assessment?
- A. Notify the physician
- B. Document the amount and characteristics of the drainage
- C. Apply ice to the stoma site
- D. Apply pressure to the site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the first 24 to 72 hours following surgery, mucus and serosanguineous drainage are expected from the stoma. Documenting the amount and characteristics of the drainage is appropriate. The nurse does not need to notify the physician because this is an expected finding. Applying ice or pressure to the site is not necessary.
4. A client is to take one daily dose of ranitidine (Zantac) at home to treat her peptic ulcer. The nurse knows that the client understands proper drug administration of ranitidine when she says that she will take the drug at which of the following times?
- A. Before meals
- B. With meals
- C. At bedtime
- D. When pain occurs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ranitidine (Zantac) is best taken at bedtime to reduce stomach acid production overnight.
5. The nurse is reviewing the record of a client with Crohn’s disease. Which of the following stool characteristics would the nurse expect to note documented in the client’s record?
- A. Chronic constipation
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Constipation alternating with diarrhea
- D. Stool constantly oozing from the rectum
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Crohn’s disease is characterized by nonbloody diarrhea of usually not more than four to five stools daily. Over time, the diarrhea episodes increase in frequency, duration, and severity. Chronic constipation (Choice A), constipation alternating with diarrhea (Choice C), and stool constantly oozing from the rectum (Choice D) are not characteristics typically associated with Crohn’s disease.
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