an intubated patient is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a salem sump tube at a rate of 60mlhr gastric residuals have been 30 40ml when m
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Gastrointestinal System Test

1. An intubated patient is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a Salem sump tube at a rate of 60ml/hr. Gastric residuals have been 30-40ml when monitored Q4H. You check the gastric residual and aspirate 220ml. What is your first response to this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If gastric residuals are high during continuous enteral feedings, the first response is to stop the feeding and clamp the NG tube.

2. The nurse is preparing to discontinue a client’s nasogastric tube. The client is positioned properly, and the tube has been flushed with 15 mL of air to clear secretions. Before removing the tube, the nurse makes which statement to the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client should take a deep breath because the client’s airway will be obstructed temporarily during tube removal. The nurse then tells the client to exhale slowly and withdraws the tube during exhalation. Bearing down could inhibit the removal of the tube. Breathing normally could result in aspiration of gastric secretions during inhalation. Holding the breath does not facilitate tube removal.

3. The client being treated for esophageal varices has a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube inserted to control the bleeding. The most important assessment is for the nurse to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regularly assessing respiratory status is crucial when a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is inserted to control bleeding in esophageal varices.

4. You have a patient with achalasia (incomplete muscle relaxation of the GI tract, especially sphincter muscles). Which medications do you anticipate to administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) is a medication used to relax the muscles of the GI tract in patients with achalasia.

5. The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis. The client is scheduled for surgery for 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increases abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On assessment the nurse notes that the abdomen distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Based on the signs and symptoms presented in the question, the nurse should suspect peritonitis and should notify the physician. Administering pain medication is not an appropriate intervention. Heat should never be applied to the abdomen of a client with suspected appendicitis. Scheduling surgical time is not within the scope of nursing practice, although the physician probably would perform the surgery earlier than the prescheduled time.

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