Nursing Elites

1. What are the potential consequences of damage to the stomach?

• A. Reduced digestion of carbohydrates
• B. Inability to produce or secrete bile
• C. Inability to produce or secrete gastric acid
• D. Increased ability to produce or secrete intrinsic factor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Damage to the stomach can lead to a reduced ability to produce gastric acid (Choice C) and intrinsic factor, the latter of which is crucial for vitamin B12 absorption (Choice D). That's why these two choices are correct. The stomach doesn't play a direct role in the digestion of carbohydrates (Choice A) as this process primarily occurs in the small intestine with the help of pancreatic enzymes. Similarly, bile is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, not the stomach, hence stomach damage wouldn't lead to an inability to produce or secrete bile (Choice B).

2. A nurse is caring for an antepartum client who has iron-deficiency anemia. When teaching the client about nutrition, the nurse should emphasize the need for an increased intake of which of the following foods?

• A. Milk and cheese
• B. Red meat and organ meat
• C. Fresh fruits
• D. Whole grain breads

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is red meat and organ meat. These foods are rich sources of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Red meat and organ meat can significantly help in increasing the iron levels in individuals with iron-deficiency anemia, especially in antepartum clients. Fresh fruits, while nutritious, do not provide high amounts of iron. Milk and cheese are not the best sources of iron for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Whole grain breads also do not contain as much bioavailable iron as red meat and organ meat.

3. What is the function of the gallbladder?

• A. to store bile
• B. to produce bile
• C. to digest bile
• D. to modify bile to a liquid form

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "to store bile." The gallbladder acts as a reservoir for bile produced by the liver. It releases bile into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of fats. Choice B is incorrect because the liver produces bile, not the gallbladder. Choice C is incorrect as the gallbladder does not digest bile but stores and releases it for digestion. Choice D is incorrect because bile is already in liquid form; the gallbladder does not modify it to a liquid state.

4. What is the glomerular filtration rate for patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�
• B. Less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m�
• C. Less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m�
• D. Less than 125 mL/min/1.73 m�

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), also known as end-stage renal disease, the kidney function is significantly compromised. This severe condition is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�, as correctly stated in choice A. Choices B, C, and D suggest higher GFR values, which are not indicative of stage 5 CKD. Specifically, a GFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m� indicates stage 4 CKD, less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m� signifies stage 3 CKD, and a typical healthy individual usually has a GFR of around 125 mL/min/1.73 m�, which is far above the GFR for stage 5 CKD.

5. Which physiologic effect should the nurse expect in a client addicted to hallucinogens?

• A. Dilated pupils
• B. Constricted pupils
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients addicted to hallucinogens often exhibit constricted pupils due to the effects of the drug on the sympathetic nervous system. This sympathetic stimulation causes the pupils to constrict rather than dilate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dilated pupils are more commonly associated with stimulant use, while bradycardia (slow heart rate) and bradypnea (slow breathing) are not typical effects of hallucinogens.

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