ATI RN
ATI Nutrition
1. A client with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is being taught about diet. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase intake of dietary phosphorus.
- B. Eliminate foods high in protein from your diet.
- C. Reduce intake of foods high in potassium.
- D. Increase intake of sodium-containing foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, reducing intake of foods high in potassium is crucial as impaired kidney function can lead to potassium buildup in the blood, which can be dangerous. High potassium levels can cause irregular heartbeats and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, advising the client to reduce potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing dietary phosphorus, eliminating foods high in protein, or increasing sodium-containing foods are not appropriate recommendations for a client with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease as they can exacerbate the condition.
2. Fat-soluble vitamins are different from water-soluble vitamins because the body is able to store only small amounts of fat-soluble vitamins.
- A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
- B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
- C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
- D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct. A major difference between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins is that the body is able to store larger amounts of fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamins A and D are stored for long periods; therefore, minor shortages might not be identified until drastic depletion has occurred. Observable signs and symptoms of a dietary deficiency are often not identified until they are in an advanced state. Water-soluble vitamins, on the other hand, are not stored in the body and are excreted in the urine if taken in excess, making it harder to reach toxic levels.
3. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis. The client said, 'I feel weak and the bag was empty.' Which is the most likely complication the client is currently experiencing?
- A. Fluid volume overload
- B. Sepsis
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client experiencing tremors, dizziness, diaphoresis, weakness, and stating that the TPN bag is empty is likely experiencing hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia can occur when the TPN infusion suddenly stops, leading to a rapid drop in blood sugar levels. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include tremors, dizziness, diaphoresis, and weakness. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the symptoms presented are more consistent with hypoglycemia rather than fluid volume overload, sepsis, or hyperglycemia.
4. Which foods should be avoided on a low-potassium diet? (SATA)
- A. Bananas
- B. A, C
- C. Sweet potatoes
- D. Frozen corn
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bananas, sweet potatoes, and orange juice are high in potassium.
5. A nurse is developing a program about strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group. The nurse should plan to include which of the following recommendations? (Select one that does not apply).
- A. Keep cold food temperatures below 4.4�C (40�F).
- B. Reheat leftovers before eating.
- C. Wash raw vegetables thoroughly in clean water.
- D. Keep cooked foods at 48.9�C (120�F).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to keep cooked foods at 48.9�C (120�F). This temperature is too low to keep cooked foods safe from bacterial growth. The ideal temperature to keep cooked foods safe is above 60�C (140�F). Choices A, B, and C are all important strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses. Keeping cold food temperatures below 4.4�C (40�F) helps prevent bacterial growth, reheating leftovers before eating kills any bacteria that may have grown during storage, and washing raw vegetables thoroughly in clean water helps remove dirt and bacteria.
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