Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client taking warfarin. Which meal brought in by the client's family is a priority to remove before the client eats it?

• A. Oriental cabbage salad with chicken
• B. Beef enchilada, rice, and beans
• C. Ham and cheese sandwich
• D. Macaroni salad and grapefruit slices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Ham is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with warfarin. Vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Choices A, B, and D do not contain high levels of vitamin K and are less likely to interfere with the client's warfarin therapy.

2. The nurse knows that after receiving the blood from the blood bank, it should be administered within:

• A. 1 hour
• B. 2 hours
• C. 4 hours
• D. 6 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blood transfusions need to be administered promptly after receiving the blood from the blood bank to ensure patient safety and effectiveness. Waiting too long can lead to complications such as bacterial growth in the blood product, which can be harmful when infused. Administering the blood within 6 hours is crucial to prevent such risks. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because waiting for 1, 2, or 4 hours respectively can increase the likelihood of complications associated with delayed transfusion.

3. Which set of guidelines is intended to assess nutrient adequacy or plan intakes of population groups, not individuals?

• A. Old Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA)
• B. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
• C. New Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA)
• D. Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) is specifically designed to assess nutrient adequacy or plan intakes for population groups, not for individuals. The Old and New Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA) are meant for individuals, not groups, as they provide guidelines for specific nutrient intake levels for healthy individuals. The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) is used to set the highest level of nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects for most individuals in a group, which is different from assessing nutrient adequacy for groups.

4. What food would most likely be included in Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet?

• A. peanut butter
• B. oatmeal
• C. fruit preserves
• D. plain yogurt

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, plain yogurt. Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet includes pureed or smooth foods that are easy to swallow. Plain yogurt fits this criteria as it is smooth and can be easily consumed without posing a risk of choking. Choices A, B, and C are not typically included in Level 1 of the diet. Peanut butter, oatmeal, and fruit preserves are not usually suitable for individuals on Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet as they may present a choking hazard or are not in a pureed or smooth form.

5. When rickets occurs, how is the alveolar bone affected compared to other bones in the body?

• A. Both statements are true.
• B. Both statements are false.
• C. The first statement is true; the second is false.
• D. The first statement is false; the second is true.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Both statements are true. When rickets occurs, the alveolar bone is affected similar to other bones in the body, with the trabeculae of the alveolar bone also weakening. In addition to damaged alveolar bone caused by vitamin D deficiency, dental changes include delayed dentition and small molars. The other choices are incorrect because both statements provided are accurate based on the effects of rickets on the alveolar bone.

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