ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. Nurse Isabelle enters the room of a client with a cognitive impairment disorder and asks what day of the week it is, what the date, month, and year are, and where the client is. The nurse is attempting to assess:
- A. confabulation.
- B. delirium.
- C. orientation.
- D. perseveration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "orientation." Nurse Isabelle is assessing the client's orientation by asking questions about time (day, date, month, year), place, and person. This assessment helps determine the client's awareness of their surroundings and situation. Confabulation (choice A) is the unintentional fabrication of details or events to fill in memory gaps and is not being assessed in this scenario. Delirium (choice B) is a state of acute confusion and disorientation, usually with a rapid onset, which is different from assessing orientation. Perseveration (choice D) refers to the persistent repetition of a response, statement, or behavior and is not the focus of the assessment being conducted by Nurse Isabelle in this situation.
2. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's questions is least likely to yield data that will confirm or rule out migraines as the cause of his problem?
- A. Does your son experience nausea or vomiting when he has a headache?
- B. Does your son have a history of recent head injury?
- C. Does your son become sensitive to light when he has a headache?
- D. Does anyone in your family have a history of migraines?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asking about a history of recent head injury is less likely to yield data relevant to confirming or ruling out migraines. Migraines are often associated with symptoms like nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, and a family history of migraines. While head injuries can cause headaches, the focus of the assessment in this case should be on symptoms more specific to migraines to guide the diagnosis and management.
3. A patient is receiving intravenous amphotericin. Which of the following assessments warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Hematocrit of 39%
- C. Blood urea nitrogen of 60 mg/dL
- D. AST level of 10 Unit/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intravenous amphotericin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to increased blood urea nitrogen levels. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicates impaired renal function, which is a known adverse effect of amphotericin. Therefore, a BUN level of 60 mg/dL warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent. The other options, such as a sodium level of 138 mEq/L, hematocrit of 39%, and AST level of 10 Unit/L, are within normal ranges and not indicative of the need to discontinue amphotericin therapy.
4. A patient is prescribed testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of this medication?
- A. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms.
- B. Apply the gel to the face and neck.
- C. Apply the gel to the genitals for maximum absorption.
- D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the testosterone gel to the chest or upper arms. This is recommended to minimize the risk of unintentional transfer of the medication to others, especially women and children, through skin contact. Applying the gel to the face, neck, or genitals is not advised as it can lead to unintended exposure to others. Additionally, applying the gel to the scalp or back is not appropriate as these areas are not indicated for absorption of testosterone.
5. When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the education regarding the timing of the medication?
- A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
- D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, it is essential to stress the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This ensures stable hormone levels, improving the effectiveness of the contraceptives in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is crucial for maintaining hormone levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning to avoid side effects. Choice D is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective, and consistent timing is important for their efficacy.
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