ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. Not realizing that its surface was hot, a woman has quickly withdrawn her hand from the surface of a bowl that she was removing from a microwave. Which phenomena has facilitated the rapid movement of her hand in response to the painful stimulus?
- A. Crossed-extensor reflex
- B. Flexor reflex
- C. Withdrawal reflex
- D. Stretch reflex
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The withdrawal reflex is a protective response that allows a person to quickly remove their hand from a painful stimulus.
2. During an acute asthma exacerbation, what is the priority nursing intervention for a client with asthma?
- A. Administer corticosteroids to reduce airway inflammation.
- B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed.
- D. Obtain a peak flow reading to assess the severity of the exacerbation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention during an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed. SABAs help in quickly relieving bronchospasm and are considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations. Administering corticosteroids, positioning the client, and obtaining a peak flow reading are important interventions but come after administering SABAs in the management of acute asthma exacerbation.
3. A male patient is being treated with sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. History of myocardial infarction
- C. Recent use of antihypertensive medications
- D. Use of nitrates
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and the combination can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A, peptic ulcer disease, is not a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice B, a history of myocardial infarction, is not a contraindication unless the patient is also taking nitrates. Choice C, recent use of antihypertensive medications, is not a contraindication but requires caution as the combination can lead to additive effects lowering blood pressure.
4. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes
- B. Mumps
- C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
- D. Testicular trauma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.
5. A patient with a diagnosis of renal failure is being treated with epoetin alfa (Epogen). Frequent assessment of which of the following laboratory values should be prioritized before and during treatment?
- A. AST
- B. C-reactive protein
- C. CBC
- D. ALT
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is AST. Epoetin alfa is a medication used to treat anemia associated with chronic renal failure. During treatment with epoetin alfa, it is crucial to monitor AST levels as this medication can potentially lead to liver toxicity. Assessing AST levels before and throughout treatment helps in early detection of any liver abnormalities. C-reactive protein is not specifically related to the use of epoetin alfa in renal failure. While CBC (Complete Blood Count) monitoring is essential during treatment with epoetin alfa to evaluate the response to therapy, prioritizing AST assessment is more critical due to the potential for liver toxicity. ALT monitoring is also important but AST is prioritized in this scenario.
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