ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023 Test Bank
1. Monosaccharides are converted into glucose in the liver to provide an energy supply to the cells.
- A. Both statements are true
- B. Both statements are false
- C. The first statement is true; the second is false
- D. The first statement is false; the second is true
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Both statements are true. Monosaccharides are indeed converted into glucose in the liver. Glucose, in turn, serves as a primary energy source for cells in the body, providing the necessary fuel for various cellular functions. The liver plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels by converting monosaccharides into glucose and releasing it into the bloodstream when needed. Therefore, option A is the correct choice. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because both statements are accurate in this context.
2. A client who is in her second trimester of pregnancy should increase her caloric intake by how many calories during this trimester?
- A. 110 cal/day
- B. 225 cal/day
- C. 340 cal/day
- D. 450 cal/day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During the second trimester of pregnancy, it is recommended that a client increases their caloric intake by around 340 calories per day to support the growing needs of both the mother and the developing fetus. This additional intake helps ensure the proper nutrition and energy levels required during this crucial stage of pregnancy. Option A (110 cal/day) is too low to meet the increased demands. Option B (225 cal/day) is also below the recommended amount. Option D (450 cal/day) is higher than necessary and could lead to excessive weight gain, which is not ideal during pregnancy.
3. During the Emergent phase of a burn, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in a burned client is:
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the Emergent phase of burns, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance is Hypokalemia. This is due to the shift of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space, leading to low potassium levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Hyperkalemia, Hypernatremia, and Hyponatremia are not typically associated with the Emergent phase of burns and do not pose the same level of risk as Hypokalemia in this context.
4. Which of the following treatments is not recommended for a child classified with no dehydration?
- A. Administering 1,000 ml to 1,400 ml within 4 hours
- B. Continuing feeding
- C. Allowing the child to take as much fluid as he wants
- D. Returning the child to the doctor if the condition worsens
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Continuing feeding is a recommended treatment for a child classified with no dehydration. This helps maintain the child's nutritional status and supports recovery. Options A, C, and D are appropriate interventions for a child with no dehydration. Option A ensures adequate fluid intake, option C promotes hydration, and option D ensures appropriate follow-up if the condition worsens.
5. A factor contributing to the risk for dehydration in the older adult is that _____.
- A. drinking fluids causes loss of bladder control
- B. older adults do not seem to notice mouth dryness as readily as younger people
- C. increased fluid intake will decrease the intake of nutrient-dense foods
- D. changes in intestinal motility contribute to excess fluid loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Older adults may not notice mouth dryness as readily as younger individuals, increasing their risk for dehydration, especially if they do not consciously increase fluid intake.
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