Nursing Elites

1. Larry, 55 years old, who is suspected of having colorectal cancer, is admitted to the CI. After taking the history and vital signs the physician does which test as a screening test for colorectal cancer.

• A. Barium enema
• B. Carcinoembryonic antigen
• C. Annual digital rectal examination
• D. Proctosigmoidoscopy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

2. Onset frequently occurs after the age of 40.

• A. Type 1 Diabetes
• B. Type 2 Diabetes
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Type 2 Diabetes. Type 2 Diabetes commonly presents with an onset after the age of 40, although it is now also seen in younger individuals due to lifestyle factors such as poor diet and lack of exercise. Type 1 Diabetes, on the other hand, typically develops in childhood or adolescence and is not associated with age over 40. Choices C and D are left blank as they are not relevant to the question.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Albumin in my urine is an indication of normal kidney function.
• B. I will keep my HbA1c at five percent.
• C. I will have ketones in my urine if my blood glucose is maintained at 190 milligrams per deciliter.
• D. I will keep my blood glucose levels between 200 and 212 milligrams per deciliter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Maintaining an HbA1c level of 5 percent indicates good long-term blood glucose control and understanding of diabetes management. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of albumin in the urine (albuminuria) is actually an indication of kidney damage in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as ketones in the urine are a sign of inadequate insulin and can occur when blood glucose levels are high, not at a specific level like 190 mg/dL. Choice D is also incorrect as the client should aim to keep blood glucose levels within a tighter range for better control, typically between 80-130 mg/dL before meals and less than 180 mg/dL after meals.

4. Does the hypothalamus control the feeling of hunger and satiety, and are fats the best nutrient in creating the feeling of satiety?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, the hypothalamus plays a crucial role in regulating hunger and satiety. Fats are indeed known to be highly satiating nutrients, helping to create a feeling of fullness and satisfaction after a meal. Therefore, both statements are true. Choice B is incorrect because fats are indeed effective in promoting satiety.

5. Dietary fiber has been recommended for its possible benefits in reducing heart disease by lowering blood cholesterol. How is fiber thought to play its role in lowering blood cholesterol?

• A. Insoluble fiber binds with cholesterol in the large intestine and is excreted in feces
• B. Viscous fiber binds with bile in the intestine and is excreted in feces
• C. Soluble fiber binds with cholesterol in the blood and is excreted by the liver
• D. Insoluble fiber converts to bile in the large intestine and binds with cholesterol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Viscous (soluble) fiber binds with bile acids in the intestine, which are then excreted. The liver must use cholesterol to make more bile acids, thereby lowering blood cholesterol levels. Choice A is incorrect as insoluble fiber does not bind with cholesterol in the large intestine. Choice C is incorrect as soluble fiber does not directly bind with cholesterol in the blood. Choice D is incorrect as insoluble fiber does not convert to bile in the large intestine to bind with cholesterol.

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