how should a nurse respond when a patient expresses concerns about the side effects of a prescribed medication
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B

1. How should a healthcare provider respond when a patient expresses concerns about the side effects of a prescribed medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient expresses concerns about medication side effects, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient. This approach helps the patient make an informed decision about their treatment. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns by reassuring them that side effects are rare may not address the patient's specific worries. Choice C, while pharmacists can provide valuable information, the primary responsibility lies with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as referring the patient to another healthcare provider may disrupt continuity of care and not address the patient's concerns effectively.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab results of a client with liver disease. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated ammonia levels in a client with liver disease can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that can cause cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice A) are common in liver disease but do not require immediate intervention. Low albumin levels (Choice B) and low hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are also common in liver disease but do not pose an immediate threat compared to elevated ammonia levels.

3. A patient reports feeling dizzy when standing up. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the patient to sit down slowly. This intervention is appropriate for a patient experiencing dizziness when standing up, as it helps prevent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Encouraging deep breaths (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of dizziness, which is related to postural changes. Instructing the patient to use a walker for support (Choice C) or teaching the patient how to change positions safely (Choice D) are not the most immediate and direct interventions to address the immediate risk of falling when feeling dizzy upon standing.

4. A client just had a flexible bronchoscopy. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a flexible bronchoscopy, it is essential to withhold food and liquids until the client's gag reflex returns. This precaution helps prevent aspiration, as the gag reflex protects the airway from foreign material. Irrigating the client's throat every 4 hours (Choice A) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of aspiration. Suctioning the client's oropharynx frequently (Choice C) can cause trauma and is not indicated unless there is a specific medical reason for it. Having the client refrain from talking for 24 hours (Choice D) is not necessary after a flexible bronchoscopy.

5. Which of the following is a common manifestation of opioid withdrawal?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors and increased blood pressure. During opioid withdrawal, individuals commonly experience symptoms such as tremors, increased blood pressure, and restlessness. Choice A, which suggests bradycardia and hypotension, is incorrect as opioid withdrawal often leads to tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and increased blood pressure. Choice C, severe muscle weakness and fatigue, is not a typical manifestation of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, severe hallucinations and delusions, is more characteristic of conditions like delirium tremens associated with alcohol withdrawal, rather than opioid withdrawal.

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